I was thinking the same thing, every integer is even or odd is a good
example of XOR but I wouldn't recommend it for most uses (and even for nneo
we will probably want the iff version because it has more theorems about
it).

On Sat, Apr 25, 2020 at 7:39 PM Jim Kingdon <[email protected]> wrote:

> > Thinking of it as "either one side or the other side is true but not
> both" doesn't seem to convey the same meaning.
>
> I guess what got me down this whole line of thinking was the text "A
> positive integer is even or odd but not both" from the comment to
> http://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/nneo.html
>
> But all the points about "one more symbol to worry about, make convenience
> theorems for, etc" are certainly valid. And even in iset.mm it is a bit
> unknown at this point whether recasting some of these theorems with xor
> will make things easier. I've done a few experiments in that direction, and
> it might have helped with a situation or two which can be and is solved
> differently in set.mm. But this is early days in terms of trying out this
> technique. I'll endorse the recommendation of caution.
>
> On April 25, 2020 1:36:08 PM PDT, Norman Megill <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>> On Saturday, April 25, 2020 at 1:33:20 PM UTC-4, Jim Kingdon wrote:
>>>
>>> With respect to exclusive or, there are a lot of theorems in set.mm
>>> which use ?? <-> -. ?? (examples: sotric , posn , nneo , nltpnft ). At
>>> least some of these can be productively thought of as exclusive or and may
>>> benefit from notating them as exclusive or. In set.mm this is
>>> presumably just a matter of style or preference. In iset.mm exclusive
>>> or is not equivalent to ?? <-> -. ?? and it may be that some of these
>>> theorems naturally intuitionize to exclusive or. The main example so far is
>>> http://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/rpneg.html intuitionizing to
>>> http://us.metamath.org/ileuni/rpnegap.html but I suspect there might be
>>> others where exclusive or would be the natural intuitionization.
>>>
>>
>> We need to be a little careful here to see whether this makes the theorem
>> easier or harder to use and read.
>>
>> For example, the proof of ~ cnpart uses ~ rpneg and applies ~ con2bid
>> then ~ df-nel to transform A e. RR+ <-> -. -u A e. RR+ into the equivalence
>> -u A e. RR+ <-> A e/ RR+.  Is this easier to do using the xor version?  We
>> don't have the large library of theorems for xor that's already been
>> developed for <-> and even <-> -. .  So there might be extra conversions
>> back and forth between <-> and xor.  Another advantage of <-> is that it
>> can be part of a long chain of equivalences.
>>
>> There is also the human aspect of whether xor makes it easier to
>> understand.  First, xor isn't even defined in most math books, so already
>> there is an unfamiliar symbol to some that needs to be looked up.  Second,
>> I naturally read ?? <-> -. ?? as "?? if and only if -. ??" i.e. the two
>> sides are equivalent and imply each other.  Thinking of it as "either one
>> side or the other side is true but not both" doesn't seem to convey the
>> same meaning.  I'm not that used to working with xor and would probably
>> translate it in my head to the <-> -. version (in classical set.mm
>> anyway).
>>
>> Norm
>>
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