I slightly edited my question from Mathematics Stack Exchange. Mario 
Carneiro already answered it.

On Sunday, July 30, 2023 at 9:29:30 PM UTC+9 Bulhwi Cha wrote:

> I asked the following question on mathematics stack exchange:
>
>
> https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4744694/is-it-legitimate-to-assert-a-propositional-function
>
> > About a year ago, I had a dispute with someone over whether it is 
> legitimate to assert a propositional function, as in ⊢ x = x. They said an 
> assertion containing free variables is nonsense since a propositional 
> function is not a proposition. They also argued that the theorem equid[0] 
> in the Metamath Proof Explorer[1], which states that ⊢ x = x where x is a 
> set variable, is false since we can show that ∅ ⊨ x = x.
> > 
> > However, it seems legitimate to assert a propositional function in 
> Principia Mathematica:
> > 
> > > When we assert something containing a real variable, we cannot 
> strictly be said to be asserting a proposition, for we only obtain a 
> definite proposition by assigning a value to the variable, and then our 
> assertion only applies to one definite case, so that it has not at all the 
> same force as before. When what we assert contains a real variable, we are 
> asserting a wholly undetermined one of all the propositions that result 
> from giving various values to the variable. It will be convenient to speak 
> of such assertions as asserting a propositional function. (Whitehead and 
> Russell, 1910)
> > 
> > I'm curious about whether many mathematicians accept this convention. I 
> also want to know if it is true that ∅ ⊨ x = x; I'm not familiar with model 
> theory.
> > 
> > **Reference**
> > 
> > Whitehead, Alfred North, and Bertrand Russell. 1910. *Principia 
> Mathematica, Vol. I*. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press. 
> https://archive.org/details/principiamathema01anwh/page/18/mode/2up.
> > 
> > [0]: https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/equid.html
> > [1]: https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/mmset.html
>

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