Can you tell me how would you formalize Wolfram's axiom in Metamath without 
equality? (So that I can be sure we are on the same page).
Il giorno venerdì 7 giugno 2024 alle 17:15:25 UTC+2 
[email protected] ha scritto:

> > Note that simply replacing the "=" with  "<->" will lead you to an 
> incomplete system, because you have no way to derive a propositional 
> statement where the "<->"  is not present.
>
>
> Using "<->" was what I proposed. I cannot follow your statement. When you 
> have multiple rules that can do everything that is semantically defined by 
> Boolean algebra, you sure can derive everything that semantically follows. 
> The question is, why you wouldn't be able to define the required rules in 
> Metamath (and prove them in set.mm based on only propositional 
> primitives).
>
>
> > the axioms in Mario's formalization would not provide all properties 
> that you need to know the full behaviour of the classical biconditional 
> operator
>
>
> Which in set.mm is meaningless. All you need is to derive whichever rules 
> are required (in Metamath such is called "Theorem" with an "Hypothesis"), 
> but based on ax-1, ax-2, ax-3, ax-mp, df-bi, and df-nan (which includes 
> df-an). How can this not be possible? If it is not, there must be a lack of 
> expressiveness in the Metamath language, or Wolfram's "=" must do something 
> that is not true for "<->". Since the propositional calculus is complete.
> ------------------------------
> *Von:* [email protected] <[email protected]> im Auftrag von 
> Gino Giotto <[email protected]>
> *Gesendet:* Freitag, 7. Juni 2024 16:53:19
> *An:* Metamath
> *Betreff:* Re: [Metamath] Re: Shortest possible axiom for propositional 
> calculus 
>  
> > Why not? What features are used by Wolfram's rules that cannot be 
> described in Metamath language? Shouldn't propositional logic alone suffice 
> (as I mentioned earlier), let alone ZFC? 
>
> I am referring to the chapter called "Other axiomatizations related to 
> classical propositional calculus", which appears before the properties 
> about equality (and set theory) are introduced. To formalize Wolfram's 
> system into that chapter, you have to find a way to eliminate/translate the 
> equality inference rules (which I don't think it's possible).
>
> Note that simply replacing the "=" with  "<->" will lead you to an 
> incomplete system, because you have no way to derive a propositional 
> statement where the "<->"  is not present. The tautology "|-  ( ph -/\ ( 
> ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ph ) ) ) )" is not derivable for example. 
> However, if you keep the "=" as a foreign symbol from classical 
> propositional calculus then you can derive an equivalent formulation as "
> |-   ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ph ) ) ) )  = T." ("true" can be 
> defined in terms of NAND).
>
> you might say that replacing "=" with  "<->" would allow to derive "|-  ( 
> ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ( ph -/\ ph ) ) ) )  <-> T." anyway, but the 
> axioms in Mario's formalization would not provide all properties that you 
> need to know the full behaviour of the classical biconditional operator.
>
> In Wolfram's system the biconditional can be added with a conservative 
> definition "|-  ( ph <-> ps ) = ( ( ( ph -/\ ph ) -/\ ( ps -/\ ps ) ) -/\ 
> ( ph -/\ ps ) )" and statements like  "|- ( ps <-> ph ) = ( ph <-> ps )" are 
> derivable without issues. But what happens if I add a definition of 
> biconditional when the symbol "<->" was already used in the system? Then 
> I can now rewrite any biconditional into NAND operations, and eventually 
> derive expressions that do not contain any biconditional. This was 
> impossible before, therefore I didn't add a definition, I added an axiom, 
> so my original axiomatic system was not sufficient to properly describe 
> classical propositional calculus.
>
> Il giorno venerdì 7 giugno 2024 alle 10:21:14 UTC+2 
> [email protected] ha scritto:
>
>>
>> > So, we can't even formalize it in set.mm chapter about alternative 
>> axiom systems for propositional calculus at all.
>>
>> Why not? What features are used by Wolfram's rules that cannot be 
>> described in Metamath language? Shouldn't propositional logic alone suffice 
>> (as I mentioned earlier), let alone ZFC?
>>
>>
>> [email protected] schrieb am Freitag, 7. Juni 2024 um 02:19:20 
>> UTC+2:
>>
>>> I could not have wished for a better answer. He does actually assume 
>>> inferences about equality. So, we can't even formalize it in set.mm 
>>> chapter about alternative axiom systems for propositional calculus at all. 
>>> Il giorno venerdì 7 giugno 2024 alle 00:54:27 UTC+2 [email protected] ha 
>>> scritto:
>>>
>>>> On Thu, Jun 6, 2024 at 11:07 AM Gino Giotto <[email protected]> 
>>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> So this is the linked single NAND axiom for propositional calculus by 
>>>>> Stephen Wolfram: 
>>>>>
>>>>> ((p·q)·r)·(p·((p·r)·p))=r
>>>>>
>>>>> My question is: how would this translate into Metamath?
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> To answer this question directly, here's a metamath axiomatization of 
>>>> wolfram's axiom system and a proof of step 1:
>>>>
>>>> $c term wff |- = ( ) $.
>>>> $v p q r s ph $.
>>>> tp $f term p $.
>>>> tq $f term q $.
>>>> tr $f term r $.
>>>> ts $f term s $.
>>>> wph $f wff ph $.
>>>> weq $a wff p = q $. $( equality $)
>>>> tna $a term ( p q ) $. $( nand $)
>>>>
>>>> ${ symm.1 $e |- p = q $.
>>>>    symm $a |- q = p $. $}
>>>> ${ trans.1 $e |- p = q $.  trans.2 $e |- q = r $.
>>>>    trans $a |- p = r $. $}
>>>> ${ naeq.1 $e |- p = q $.  naeq.2 $e |- r = s $.
>>>>    naeq $a |- ( p r ) = ( q s ) $. $}
>>>>
>>>> ax $a |- ( ( ( p q ) r ) ( p ( ( p r ) p ) ) ) = r $.
>>>>
>>>> refl $p |- p = p $=
>>>>   ( tna ax symm trans ) AAABABZAFBBZAGAAAACZDHE $.
>>>>
>>>> step1 $p |- ( p ( ( p q ) p ) ) = ( q ( ( p r ) ( ( ( p r ) ( p ( ( p q 
>>>> ) p ) ) ) ( p r ) ) ) ) $=
>>>>   ( tna ax symm refl naeq trans ) 
>>>> AABDADDZACDZBDJDZKKJDKDDZDZBMDNJKBJEFLBMMACBE
>>>>   MGHI $.
>>>>
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