Thanks! And would MM0 (and therefore just having PA as a metatheory) be
enough to prove theorems such as independence of CH or other incompleteness
theorems?

On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 12:57 PM Mario Carneiro <[email protected]> wrote:

>
>
> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 4:30 PM Noam Pasman <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Ok, so if I understand this correctly the goal is to find a reasonable
>> set of axioms that let you construct a model of ZFC and then try to prove
>> derivability results about ZFC in that wider set theory. The first thing
>> that comes to mind is the Tarski-Grothendieck Axiom, so (not sure if this
>> is the right way to think about this) what would a statement that CH isn't
>> derivable in ZFC look like in that system?
>>
>
> Well in any system the statement that CH isn't derivable in ZFC looks
> about the same: it consists of defining what a proof in ZFC is, by defining
> formulas and substitution, the logical axioms and rules of inference, and
> then the non-logical axioms and rules of inference of ZFC itself. Then the
> assertion that CH is not derivable is saying that CH when encoded
> appropriately as a formula does not have a proof in ZFC. You can do all of
> this in PA or ZFC itself, you don't need the system to be strong to define
> what a proof is.
>
> The hard part is proving this theorem, not stating it. It is a theorem of
> Goedel that you can't prove *any* non-derivability theorem about an axiom
> system such as ZFC unless the metatheory is stronger than ZFC, because one
> particular non-derivability claim, "ZFC does not prove false", is
> equivalent to "there is some statement that ZFC does not prove", and ZFC
> cannot prove this statement (called Con(ZFC), aka "ZFC is consistent").
>
> I definitely hadn't thought about that example and I think I somewhat
>> understand it? I can imagine this proof of 3 for example:
>> |- 1 (by A1)
>> |- (1+1) (by A2)
>> |- (1+(1+1)) (by A2)
>>  My one point of confusion is that I don't know how I'd even express -1
>> as a statement in this system, beyond proving it.
>>
>
> That's fair. We can say that the language of statements in this system is
> ZZ (each individual number is a separate proposition), but the proofs are
> still NN0 and there is a family of inference rules saying that "n is a
> natural number implies n+1 is a natural number" for each natural number n.
> Then -1 will be a statement in the system, but it has no proof.
>
>
>> I'm a bit confused about what Metamath Zero is doing (I'm not so good
>> with github to be honest). Are you taking statements about set theory as
>> your objects and then constructing proofs about what is provable using the
>> Peano Axioms?
>>
>
> In this case the object logic is Metamath zero itself, and the peano
> axioms form the metatheory. So that means that we have to define in PA what
> is a  proof in the style of MM0, which is why the file is defining
> expressions and theorems and proofs. The very last definition defines what
> it means for a MM0 file to be provable (i.e. it asserts a statement that is
> derivable from the axioms, which are also part of the statement in this
> setting). This is a particularly grungy definition because it defines
> parsing from strings, plus it works at a higher level than expressions, an
> MM0 file (like a metamath file) consists of axioms and theorems that follow
> from those axioms, so correctness is saying that the theorems follow from
> the axioms. You don't have to pay too much attention to this reference, the
> main point I wanted to make is that it is possible to scale this up to
> formalizations of "real world" formal systems.
>
>
>>
>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 5:02 AM Mario Carneiro <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>> This is actually a property shared with every formal system, it's a
>>> necessary consequence of having a precise derivation mechanism that you can
>>> only derive the things that are derivable, you can't derive that things are
>>> not derivable or else they would be derivable. You have to use a
>>> "metalogic" within which to perform reasoning about non-derivability in an
>>> object logic. In ZFC, this is done by passing to a metalogic which is
>>> usually another set theory (a stronger one, because it will generally
>>> contain a model of ZFC).
>>>
>>> You can use Metamath as a metalogic though, and then you would be
>>> proving theorems about derivability and non-derivability with respect to a
>>> different logic, explicitly encoded via proof rules. For example (an
>>> example so trivial that it may actually be confusing to think about), you
>>> can view the natural numbers as a formal system whose proofs are numbers
>>> and where there is one axiom "zero is a number" and one inference rule "the
>>> successor of a number is a number". So when you prove `n e. NN0`, you are
>>> proving that `n` is a proof in this formal system, and since -1 is negative
>>> we can prove `-1 e/ NN0` and hence we can prove that -1 is unprovable in
>>> this formal system (no amount of adding successors to zero will obtain -1).
>>>
>>> I've been working on using Metamath as a metalogic pretty heavily, but
>>> most of my work has shifted to using Metamath Zero instead (which was
>>> designed to make this kind of thing a bit easier). For example
>>> https://github.com/digama0/mm0/blob/master/examples/mm0.mm0 is a
>>> formalization of the MM0 formal system, using PA as the metalogic and MM0
>>> as the object logic (and MM0 as the framework within which to do proofs in
>>> PA).
>>>
>>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 10:50 AM Noam Pasman <[email protected]>
>>> wrote:
>>>
>>>> As a follow-up question:
>>>> Metamath seems clearly limited in that it can't prove independence, or
>>>> more generally that the only kind of statement it can express is that
>>>> something is provable given the axioms. If we want to prove something like
>>>> "ZFC does not prove CH" then it seems like we'd need an "outer axiomatic
>>>> system" with its own framework of generic axioms that could take in a model
>>>> of set theory and determine whether it proves some statement. Then a proof
>>>> of, say, the independence of CH could be expressed in this outer model,
>>>> since it clearly (I assume) can't be expressed in Metamath.
>>>> Is this the right way to think about this, and if so what would those
>>>> generic axioms be? Sorry if this is an obvious question or if I'm not
>>>> expressing this clearly - my knowledge is mostly just from a lot of reading
>>>> through the Metamath proof explorer and so I don't have much experience
>>>> with other proof explorers/ways of doing set theory.
>>>>
>>>> On Mon, Nov 25, 2024 at 11:11 AM Jim Kingdon <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> This is a good summary.
>>>>>
>>>>> Another place to look is a treatment of the disjunction property such
>>>>> as https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disjunction_and_existence_properties
>>>>> or https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/disjunction/ (search for
>>>>> "disjunction property"). The original post seemed to implicitly assume the
>>>>> disjunction property, which does not hold for ZFC.
>>>>> On 11/25/24 07:49, 'Thierry Arnoux' via Metamath wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>> Given a set of axioms like ZFC:
>>>>>
>>>>>    - some statements can be proven to be true,
>>>>>    - some statements can be proven to be false,
>>>>>    - some statements can be neither proven nor disproved.
>>>>>
>>>>> The last statements are said to be *independent* of the model. It
>>>>> does not mean that they are both true and false or neither true or false,
>>>>> it means that it does not matter whether you choose them to be true or
>>>>> false, neither case will lead to inconsistencies/contradictions. The 
>>>>> famous
>>>>> example is that of the non-euclidean geometries: one might choose to 
>>>>> assume
>>>>> that there exist more than one line through a point parallel to the
>>>>> given line - or exactly one - or none. It's not that those statement are
>>>>> both true and false, or neither : you can choose them to be what you want 
>>>>> -
>>>>> and there are interesting developments in both cases.
>>>>>
>>>>> This is compatible with the law of excluded middle, which states that
>>>>> a statement is either true or false: we might simply have not decided yet 
>>>>> -
>>>>> our set of axioms do not shed light so far and they are still in the dark,
>>>>> behind our horizon.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> That's the case for the Continuum Hypothesis: it is independent from
>>>>> ZFC, in the sense that it cannot be proven nor disproved from ZFC.
>>>>> In set.mm, the (generalized) Continuum Hypothesis is written `GCH =
>>>>> _V`, for example in ~gch3 <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/gch3.html>.
>>>>> In this statement ~gch3, it is not taken to be true or false, but an
>>>>> equivalence is provided. In other cases, some of its implications are
>>>>> found. In all cases, it is part of a broader statement.
>>>>> While we can reason *about *it, no assumption is made about its truth
>>>>> value.
>>>>>
>>>>> Because it is independent of ZFC, there can be no conflict. We could
>>>>> choose to either assume it is true or false, and add the corresponding
>>>>> axiom, and there would be no contradiction.
>>>>> BR,
>>>>> _
>>>>> Thierry
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 25/11/2024 15:23, Anarcocap-socdem wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>> I would like that somebody could point out the failure of the
>>>>> following argument:
>>>>>
>>>>> - The law of excluded middle is a theorem in Metamath:
>>>>> https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/exmid.html
>>>>>
>>>>> - However, the Continuum Hypothesis is a counterexample of the law of
>>>>> excluded middle in ZFC, since it is neither true nor wrong.
>>>>>
>>>>> How to avoid this conflict?
>>>>>
>>>>> Thanks!
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>>>>>
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>>>>>
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