On the value of a piece being with or without BP, I think this is how
I see it.
You'll often see dealers marketing a piece by comparing it to one
having just sold in auction, pointing out that they are selling it for
XXXX less than it reached in auction, and what good value it is.
In this instance, do they compare their price favourably to the
auction sale without BP, or more favourably including the BP?
I'd imagine it's invariably the latter.
Cheers,
Rich
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