Many thanks for your help Chris!
We are also using a BEA adapter bridge that moves messages from a JMS queue to a MQSeries queue. I believe that somehow the bridge is setting the value of the JMSReplyToQueue field to NULL which translates to the NULL value in the MQMD header......only an assumption!
Jau
| "Chris A. Dahl" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent by: "MQSeries List" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 01-Nov-2002 16:26
|
To: MQSERIES cc: Subject: Re: Weblogic/MQJMS |
Jay,
You should be able to set the JMSReplyToQueue field in Weblogic JMS and
have it map to the appropriate MQ header field. I assume you are using MQ
JMS and the JMSAdmin utility to set your mapping to non-JMS. If you are not
doing it that way, MQ JMS doesn't have the opportunity to map it for you
and that may be your problem. If you are connecting to MQ via client mode
rather than bindings mode and setting it to a non-JMS client, that would
explain it.
Let me know if my assumptions are incorrect.
- Chris
Jay Jayatissa
<Jay.R.Jayatissa To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
@GSK.COM> cc:
Sent by: Subject: Weblogic/MQJMS
MQSeries List
<MQSERIES@AKH-WI
EN.AC.AT>
11/01/02 09:26
AM
Please respond
to MQSeries List
Hi,
has anyone experienced this problem before. I have a MQ JMS app (running on
WebLogic) sending messages to a non-JMS app via a MQServer, thus I have set
the target client to be non-JMS compliant which means that there is no
MQRFH2 header. However, I want to know if it is possible to set the
JMSReplyToQueue field because it gets set to NULL by WebLogic. Is this
because the ReplyToQueue field needs the MQRFH2 header to store the value?
any help most welcome.
thanks,
Jay
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