On 4/30/07, David Goldsmith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> (hint what is arctan(0+1j)?) > Well, at the risk of embarrassing myself, using arctan(x+iy) = I get: arctan(0+1i) = -i*log((0+i*1)/sqrt(0^2 + 1^2)) = -i*log(i/1) = -i*log(i) = -i*log(exp(i*pi/2)) = -i*i*pi/2 = pi/2... Is there some reason I'm forgetting (e.g., a branch cut convention or something) why this is wrong?
Oops. It may well be OK, I answered too fast (I'd explain my thinking, but ti would be embarassing). However, I believe atan works in general for complex numbers but it may well have a problem for this specific case. I should look at this more closely though since the behaviour near zero does seem a little odd. No time right now, but maybe later today. DG
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