Hi Michael,

I apologize for being so slow in responding to this.  I did not
receive the first message and haven't had a chance to respond to this
direct email as I've been very busy trying to get a product release
out the door.  I attempt to answer the questions inline below.  I'm
also cc'ing the OAUTH WG mailing list as these are questions that
others might have too.  Note there are also questions about
draft-ietf-oauth-assertions-00 too.

Thanks for the review and feedback.  Hopefully I can address your questions.
Brian



On Mon, Aug 15, 2011 at 5:50 AM, Engler, Michael <michael.eng...@sap.com> wrote:
>
> Hi Brian,
>
> possibly the previous mail was lost somewhere in the IETF mailinglists … thus 
> I send here again directly. I apologize if you now received it twice … J
>
> Greetings,
> Michael
>
>
> _____________________________________________
> From: Engler, Michael
> Sent: Mittwoch, 10. August 2011 18:11
> To: 'draft-ietf-oauth-saml2-bea...@tools.ietf.org'
> Cc: Doersam, Joachim
> Subject: Mail regarding draft-ietf-oauth-saml2-bearer
>
>
> Hi Brian,
>
> I are currently reading your latest draft on SAML bearer assertion usage in 
> OAuth 2. Some parts are currently unclear, and it would be great if you could 
> bring light into the dark J …
>
> In the document I read the following: “If the Assertion was issued with the 
> intention that the presenter act autonomously on behalf of the subject, an 
> <AuthnStatement> SHOULD NOT be included.  The presenter SHOULD be identified 
> in the <NamseID> or similar element, the <SubjectConfirmation> element, or by 
> other available means like [OASIS.saml-deleg-cs].”
>
>
> What does it actually mean if the presenter (= OAuth client) acts 
> autonomously but still on behalf of the subject? Isn’t this a contradiction?

Perhaps 'autonomously' isn't the best word there and I'm open to
suggestions on an alternative.  What I'm trying to do is differentiate
between two general cases:  1) the case where the user/resource owner
is present to the client in some way and the client has authenticated
the resource owner or is sufficiently confident in the authentication
event and 2) the case where the client is doing something on behalf of
a resource owner but the resource owner isn't present to the client
and hasn't directly authenticated with the client.   An example of the
former case might be where the client is some web application that the
resource owner has logged onto and is using at the time of this
transaction.  The later case might be where the client is some cron
job or something that runs nightly and does something on the user or
users behalf but without them being around for the transaction.

> Can you elaborate more on this point why the authentication statement should 
> be left out here?

Related to what I said above, there are cases where the resource owner
hasn't authenticated with the client (or some STS) and so it seems
like it makes sense to say that no claim should be made in the
assertion about any type of authentication.  In that case, it's really
just a claim about some identity about whom this access token is being
requested.

> Should the SAML subject reference the resource owner, or the OAuth client in 
> that case?

My intent is that the subject (or the subject and some of the
attributes) should reference the resource owner while the delegation
to the client (though it's kind of implied) can be expressed through
other semantics in the assertion (that's what the second sentence from
the piece of the spec you quoted is intended to cover).

>
> In section 3.1 you write that “If present, the authorization server MUST also 
> validate the client credentials.“ …
>
>
> What is the syntax for adding the client credentials to the assertion request 
> in case of the SAML bearer token? Do you refer to the separate assertion 
> covering the client as SAML subject … or are there yet another type of client 
> credentials to take into account?
>

The means of client authentication is totally independent from the
grant type being presented (true for SAML grant type but also in
general).  That statement is just intended to ensure that client
credentials aren't ignored, if they are there.

>
> I would assume that the client id needs to be transferred as part of the 
> access token request. In draft-ietf-oauth-assertions-00 you write the 
> following:
> The following non-normative example demonstrates an assertion being
> used as an authorization grant. (line breaks are for display purposes
> only):
> POST /token HTTP/1.1
> Host: server.example.com
> Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded
>
> client_id=s6BhdRkqt3&
> grant_type=urn%3Aoasis%3Anames%sAtc%3ASAML%3A2.0%3Aassertion&
> assertion=PHNhbWxwOl...[omitted for brevity]...ZT4
>
> Why do you assume it is sufficient that the client_id is not contained within 
> the assertion but is “solely” added to the request? In our discussions so 
> far, we assumed that the client id could be transferred as an attribute 
> statement within the SAML assertion. This would prevent tampering with the 
> client id subsequently. What are your thoughts on this?

I don't necessarily assume that in all cases.  In some the client_id
is little more than an identifier (not authentication) of the client -
a hint really.  Other cases might require that the client authenticate
and that can be done any number of ways.  I also think that client_id
should be made optional in the next rev of draft-ietf-oauth-assertion
(it is currently required but that, I think, is an artifact of trying
to stay consistent with a draft of the core spec that is now
obsolete).


> Greetings,
> Michael
>
> Dr. Michael Engler
> Security & Identity Management
> TIP Core Security, Connectivity, Integration
> SAP AG
>
> Dietmar-Hopp-Allee 16
> 69190 Walldorf
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> E   michael.eng...@sap.com
>
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> Hasso Plattner
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