That doesn't make sense to me.

On Wed, Jun 14, 2023, 21:31 Daniel Fett <fett=40danielfett...@dmarc.ietf.org>
wrote:

> Hi Alexander,
> Am 14.06.23 um 15:19 schrieb Alexander Rademann:
>
> *Hello, everyone! Section 4.4.1 of the BCP
> <https://www.ietf.org/archive/id/draft-ietf-oauth-security-topics-23.html#section-4.4.1>
> draft lists several variants of mix-up attacks; the description of the
> Implicit grant variant reads as follows: "In the implicit grant, the
> attacker receives an access token instead of the code; the rest of the
> attack works as above." Given the attack description in that section, it is
> not clear to me why an attacker would receive the access token and which
> part the "rest of the attack" refers to. When the Implicit grant is used,
> H-AS sends the access token (via redirect) to the user agent, which
> extracts it and sends it to the client. However, the client does not send
> the access token to A-AS, does it? (I hope that I didn’t overlook anything
> in that section.)*
>
> * I also checked the referenced paper <https://arxiv.org/abs/1601.01229>;
> there, the authors assume that the access token is sent to the
> authorization server under the control of the attacker (or, using their
> terminology, identity provider) to access some resource. [Appendix B, p.
> 31ff] Perhaps this (or some similar) assumption should be added to the
> description of this variant?*
>
> The underlying assumption is that when then user selected to use A-AS in
> the beginning, the access token would also be used with a Resource Server
> under the attacker's control.
>
> -Daniel
>
>
> * I'm sorry if I missed anything or if this has already been addressed
> before, I'm new to this mailing list and did not find anything in the
> archives. Kind regardsAlex*
>
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