The *ist D's sensor has about 43% of the area of a 35mm film frame (369 square mm compared to 864 square mm). Lenses don't have infinite resolution; instead they have resolution limits for each aperature. Does it follow that a 35mm film lens' resolution, when used on the *ist D, will be 43% of its resolution on a 35mm film camera? (And conversely, that its resolution on a 35mm film camera would be 234% of its resolution on the *ist D?)
If a given DA lens were to be as similar as reasonably possible to a given 35mm lens, with the sole exception that it's image projected the same resolution onto the smaller area of the *ist D's sensor, would the sensor be able to capture 234% as much resolution as it would with the 35mm film lens? If a very sharp lens, such as Pentax's sharpest 50mm lenses (past or present), loses 57% of its resolution when used on the *ist D, is it still a very sharp lens? I plan to get an *ist D soon no matter what answers I get to these questions. I'm just wondering what the potential is for DA lenses, all else being equal, to be sharper on the *ist D than 35mm film lenses. Thanks, Greg
