Hi Jack:

I look forward to reading your logical proofs from the perspective of the 
natural sciences and the historical stances available to CSP.  

Personally, I have not been able to convince myself that the tri-trichotomy 
(nine terms with the index as the central logical operator) is paraconsistent.  
Hence I hope you will share the paraconsistent assertions, offline if you like. 

In any case, after more than two decades of dull back-and - forths rhetorics, I 
look forward to a little novelty. :-)


BTW, have you any views on polysemic logics?

Cheers

Jerry 


> On Jun 24, 2025, at 2:10 PM, Jack Cody <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> Jon, List, 
> 
> Thank you for the clarity. I will do as you ask (straight-forward deductive 
> in accordance with classical propositional logic). 
> 
> No, not published as it is yet except internally. The only reason for this is 
> that it is indeed momentous (I have entailed what is true in Hume and proven 
> Kant's primary thesis and demonstrated how and why — so not nothing) and when 
> you have something like that you take your time (as Kant said after reading 
> Hume, that he'd be back in a few months and returned about a decade later 
> with the Critique).
> 
> I've had to include the likes of Tarski/Godel and others within frameworks 
> where not one contradiction emerges — successively.  It is very close to 
> publication but again it's ready when it's ready — the solution, if you want 
> to call it that, is such that I'm not exactly worried if someone else wants 
> to claim it because it can only be done one way (and I have it on record for 
> years). More than accommodate Godel and Tarksi, I've explained them (the 
> origin of their theories in necessary logical form). This, as I hope you 
> understand, takes a lot of time. Years. 
> 
> Anyway, happy to share. But in advance, I have to do some work here because I 
> recall the last time this happened someone cited Peirce's dynamic object 
> which is absolutely incorrect and fraught with actual inconsistencies which 
> require logical explication in full context. 
> 
> So, I appreciate your interest, and challenge, I add, and shall reply to 
> you/list as soon as is possible. 
> 
> Thanks.
> 
> From: [email protected] <[email protected]> on behalf 
> of Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]>
> Sent: Tuesday, June 24, 2025 8:01 PM
> To: Peirce-L <[email protected]>
> Subject: [PEIRCE-L] Necessity of the Noumenal (was Modeling and finalizing 
> Peirce's semiotics with AI, Part 1)
>  
> Jack, List:
> 
> Again, precise definitions of your terms are needed up-front, including 
> "noumenal" and now "real" (why the scare quotes?) as well as "exist."
> 
> I was hoping for a straightforward deductive argumentation in accordance with 
> classical propositional logic. If that is not possible, then I suggest 
> choosing one of the standard systems of modal propositional logic, but that 
> will introduce debatable premisses from the get-go, such as the nature of the 
> accessibility relation. Requiring anything more sophisticated than that will 
> further reduce the likelihood that your argument will turn out to be 
> perspicuous and persuasive.
> 
> I assume that you have published such a momentous result in a peer-reviewed 
> book or journal. Maybe the first step is simply providing a link to that.
> 
> Regards,
> 
> Jon
> 
> On Tue, Jun 24, 2025 at 12:28 PM Jack Cody <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> John, List, 
> 
> I appreciate your reply. Well, Peirce has a good description and he calls 
> this the "real". Now, he makes a mistake when he says the noumenal is 
> nonsense (or words to that effect) for my proof necessitates that the "real" 
> can only exist (and does in absentia of all formalism I might add, but I do 
> not say Peirce did not know this either) insofar as you admit the noumenal 
> and this is beyond all possible experience (precisely as Kant said). It is 
> genuinely Apriori and is an inferred necessity. 
> 
> I'd rather ask you for the precise terms you want the proof in. The style of 
> logic (consistent/para-modal/etc) and so on rather than present one which 
> will be dismissed for some formal flaw. It's best that way. I have it in many 
> different "languages". It is flexible so I can accommodate you here. You set 
> the formal rules, explicitly, if you could (I ask a lot here maybe), and I'll 
> return the good faith with a proof in that language/style. 
> 
> Best
> 
> Jack 
> 
> PS: the "real" is apriori (and I find Peirce most sensible when he does agree 
> with Kant, at that stage in his life where admits that something like the 
> noumenal must exist, before he later goes back upon it — if my chronology is 
> correct). 
> 
> From: [email protected] <mailto:[email protected]> 
> <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> on 
> behalf of Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>>
> Sent: Tuesday, June 24, 2025 6:19 PM
> To: [email protected] <mailto:[email protected]> <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>>
> Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Modeling and finalizing Peirce's semiotics with AI, 
> Part 1.
>  
> Jack, List:
> 
> JRKC: I think it close to impossible to demonstrate the necessity of a triad
> 
> On the contrary, Robert Burch wrote an entire book to present his proof of 
> Peirce's reduction thesis 
> (https://books.google.com/books/about/A_Peircean_Reduction_Thesis.html?id=MK-EAAAAIAAJ)
>  and provides a very brief summary in his online SEP entry about Peirce 
> (https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/peirce/#red), while Sergiy Koshkin 
> purports to demonstrate it even more rigorously in a recent Transactions 
> paper (https://muse.jhu.edu/pub/3/article/886447). Personally, I find 
> Peirce's own diagrammatic demonstration to be simple and persuasive 
> enough--relations of any adicity can be built up of triads, but triads cannot 
> be built up of monads or dyads despite involving them (EP 2:364, 1905).
> 
> <image.png>
> 
> JRKC: I can prove the necessity of that Kant calls the Noumenal apriori
> 
> You have made this ambitious claim here before. What precise definition are 
> you using for "the Noumenal"? In other words, please spell out exactly what 
> you believe that you have proved, preferably as a complete deductive 
> argumentation with carefully formulated premisses and the conclusion that 
> (allegedly) follows necessarily from them.
> 
> Regards,
> 
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt 
> <http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt 
> <http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>
> On Tue, Jun 24, 2025 at 10:11 AM Jack Cody <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> List, Robert
> 
> Thanks for the link to your paper. 
> 
> I have to say, and this may go down like a lead balloon, but to be truly 
> apriori, insofar as I am certain Kant and Hume use this term consistent with 
> what it ought to mean, in that it be "independent of experience", then you 
> must make provision for results which are not restricted to the triadic. That 
> is, I think it close to impossible to demonstrate the necessity of a triad, 
> which to me, is an arbitrary schema in all geometry and sciences, regardless 
> of qualitative distinction surrounding it which I do understand (Peirce and 
> so forth — it is not arbitrary for Peirce and he makes his arguments as 
> everyone knows). 
> 
> I'd be interested to know if you can prove the necessity of retaining the 
> triad and qualify "independent of experience" (I cannot). I can prove the 
> necessity of that Kant calls the Noumenal apriori and it is one of the few 
> things which is truly apriori (I'm hard pressed to think of a second, in 
> fact). 
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