Edwina, List: > On Aug 23, 2025, at 12:47 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> > wrote: > > My view of the above is that this triadic relation can be understood as a > function where f{x]=y,or, in Peircean terms, : > > Representamen [Object]=Interpretant. Why do I compare it to a function? > Because the semiosic process is not a linear movement of data from site to > site. >
Please allow questions of clarification. The gaps between modern usage of notations and terminologies are so deeply entangled. It would be helpful if you would re-phrase your thoughts into expressions that crisply separate your ascriptions of the (externally) generated sign/objects. Further, it would be helpful if you would re-phrase your thoughts that originate in your mind as your views of your thoughts about the ascriptions related to others. Further, it would be helpful if you would re-phrase your expression of descriptions of semosis in such a way as to crisply separate Peircian descriptions from your personal descriptions. A principle source of confusion in this post is the use of modern mathematical symbolizations based on Fregean and Russellian symbolizations / conceptualizations. The notation of the equation, f(x) = y is remote from CSP’s philosophy of mathematics as related by his multiple forms of graphs derived from term logic. Could you at least attempt to think and write in the Feferman's sense of “logical particles”? It is a powerful way to clarify the subscriptions of your style of thinking. This language allows one to clearly separate Frege’s fabrications from CSP’s sentences constructed around the developing notions of graph theory and his papers on the role of the copula in composing sentences. Cheers Jerry
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