John, I don't think that these opposing views - whether semiosic actions take 
place within the physico-chemical realm or only begin in the biological realm - 
can be definitively resolved.

I, for one, like Stan, firmly believe that semiosis operates within the 
physico-chemical realm; that is, that even an atom emerges within a triadic 
relation - even if such atom has nil capacity for adaptation within that 
semiosis - as in the biological realm.

As for 'all of science is conducted in signs'...I think this is vague. Science 
is a human activity. Or, is this statement meant to refer to matter...i.e., all 
that is material is conducted in signs'. I agree with Frederik that studying 
semiosic functions within the physico-chemical realm probably does little to 
provide new knowledge about that realm, but, I agree with Stan that it could 
examine the emergence of life from that realm.

And I'm afraid that my intellectual dimness means that I can't see much 
difference between your pansemiosis and physiosemiosis...in that both 
acknowledge that semiosis operates within the physico-chemical realm. After 
all, physiosemiosis, in order to explore 'where and how', first has to 
acknowledge that semiosis actually exists in that realm.

Edwina
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Deely, John N. 
  To: Frederik Stjernfelt ; Peirce List ; [email protected] 
  Sent: Saturday, September 13, 2014 10:28 AM
  Subject: RE: [PEIRCE-L] Physics & Semiosis: the limited realm of 
physiosemiosis respecting physics


  Frederik says below: "nature has levels of organization, that the higher ones 
emerge from the lower ones, and the higher ones add new, organizational 
objects, relations, processes, combined of entities from the lower ones, but 
irreducible to them. 

  You could say this implies that the possibility of semiosis lies in physics - 
but again that does not imply that those possibilities are realized in all 
physical processes."

  This is exactly the point of the difference between the term 
"physiosemiosis", which explores the question of exactly where and how "the 
possibility of semiosis lies in physics", and the  term "pansemiosis", which 
implies that even in physics semiosis is everywhere to be found.

  And this is related to another of Frederik's well-made points: "all of 
science, no exception, is conducted IN signs. But this does not imply that all  
those sciences are ABOUT signs." Pansemiotics as a term bears connotation which 
miss this distinction entirely. This term has the fairly inevitable result, as 
Frederik puts the matter in another post, to "make the project of semiotics 
seem overblown and irrelevant to a scientific worldview." 

   

   

  From: Frederik Stjernfelt [mailto:[email protected]] 
  Sent: Saturday, September 13, 2014 07:54
  To: Peirce List; [email protected]
  Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Physics & Semiosis

   

  Dear Clark, lists,  

   

  Sorry I may not answer to postings chronologically - I have been busy for a 
couple of days so now there's a whole bundle of postings waiting. 

   

  Den 11/09/2014 kl. 04.42 skrev Clark Goble <[email protected]>:





  (Sorry for the length, but it's a subtle point I'm after)  

   

    On Sep 10, 2014, at 2:31 PM, Sungchul Ji <[email protected]> wrote:

     

    According to Edwina, all well-formed formulas of the form y = f (x)
    implicates semiosis.  So my question is

    "Does entropy or entropy change implicate semiosis ?"     (091014-4)

   

  If I understand Frederick correctly (and I thank him for his explanations), 
he is more interested in the sort of "z stands for X for Y." Examples of that 
sort aren't in physics as normally done. I agree with Frederick there. And 
again, I agree with Frederick that explanations of that form are rather common 
in biology. Teleological explanations being the most common example. 

   

  Now it's true that in the 50's and 60's there was a strong reductionist move 
to make biology reducible to physics. (Although clearly it goes back long 
before then) While this movement ultimately failed, I think it did make 
biologists more careful about their explanations. Especially in evolution. So 
while biologists will still say things like eyes evolved for mammals to see, 
when pressed they'll give an explanation in terms of chance, selection and 
efficient causation. 

   

  I agree that reduction is impossible. Of course, it is locally possible, but 
a central issue of biology seems to be that the non-local structures of 
metabolism and procreation are irreducible. 



   

  This then leads one to the question of when we are simply using sign-like 
explanations and when we think they are in the phenomena itself. (The 
distinction Frederick makes in his last reply to me) I confess that this seems 
a rather blurry distinction at best. Further it seems a distinction to which 
we'll give different answers depending upon whether we are descriptive or 
prescriptive in our pronouncements. 

   

  I am not sure it is blurry. All thought is in signs, as old P would have it - 
this implies that all of science, no exception, is conducted IN signs. But this 
does not imply that all  those sciences are ABOUT signs. 

  I am an emergentist - I think nature has levels of organization, that the 
higher ones emerge from the lower ones, and the higher ones add new, 
organizational objects, relations, processes, combined of entities from the 
lower ones, but irreducible to them. 

  You could say this implies that the possibility of semiosis lies in physics - 
but again that does not imply that those possibilities are realized in all 
physical processes. Just like hot dogs, wars, and cellphones are possibilities 
of physics but not realized in the pre-biological universe in any non-trivial 
sense of the word. 



   

  It seems undeniable that physicists use teleological language, albeit far 
less frequently than biologists. (The exception perhaps being cosmology and 
astronomy) However I'd also say that most physicists would quickly say such 
language is metaphoric. That is they'd say it is purely pedagogical and not a 
real description of the physics. On the other hand biologists are quite a bit 
more willing to say such descriptions are unavoidable in biology. Not just as a 
shorthand to say things like, "the peacock shows its tail features to attract a 
mate" but in deeper ways.

   

  But that is an example from biology (and I agree that biology can never avoid 
semiotic and teleological issues) - not from physics. What would be the example 
from physics?



   

  I'll confess a certain sympathy for those who still think biology could use a 
bit more reductionist fervor. On the other hand it also seems undeniable that 
when talking about humans or things like human, signs are unavoidable. While 
it's an article of faith among physicalists that things can be reduced to 
something like physics, I also confess I'm very skeptical of most forms of 
physicalism's description of mind. Peirce's view seems the most reasonable to 
my mind, adopting a position at least somewhat similar to property dualism. 
(Not properly of course - rather than a dualism Peirce would see a continuum) 
However I think he sees mind as an irreducible facet of the universe and thus 
any higher order type of mind would be emergent in more simple says from 
physical stuff with quasi-mental like properties. 

   

  That said, if mind or at least quasi-mind is an irreducible facet of the 
universe, what does that say about physics? I suspect it'll mean that 
eventually some future physics will have to deal with mind, and thereby signs. 
Even if, as Frederick correctly recognizes, it looks askance at such notions 
now. (To say the least) 

   

  In some sense, I agree with this. Biology (including semiotics) could be said 
to be a very specialized department of physics. But this will be physics used 
in another sense of the word. Signs and purposes do exist in nature - they are 
not human inventions - but it is a pretty special department of nature. 



   

  The question then becomes whether elements of this quasi-mind are in existing 
physical descriptions. That's much more controversial. And considering how 
Frederick is carefully using semiotics, I'd say that right now it's not 
required. That's not to say it isn't there. I think the observer in some 
formulations of quantum mechanics and arguably the same in relativity are 
usually seen as artifacts of thought experiments. The question is, however, 
given that they seem unavoidable in physical description, aren't they like the 
teleology in biology? The difference being only that physicists when they use 
them don't take them seriously? Much like a biologist seeing "the eye is for 
seeing" as a shorthand for a complex evolutionary process due to efficient 
causation.

   

  Are you referring here to "the observer" in the different interpretations of 
QM? Most often, "the observer" here just means "instrument of measurement", not 
any teleological being - the issue is the collapse of the wave function when 
passing from the QM level to the classic level. I tend to agree with Penrose 
that this should be seen as a perfectly physical, real process - not something 
which is connected to "observation" or even "measurement" as anything having to 
do with human beings or intentions. It is not us who make the wave function 
collapse . 



   

  I bring this up since while I can now understand why Frederick makes the 
point he does, I think it ends up being more about how common a particular 
stance is within each science. So psychologists, for instance, clearly take 
signs seriously and physicists tend to see it as an artifact. This means, 
however, that the ambiguity Frederick raised between "whether there is a sign 
process going on when we're not looking," and "we use sign-like concepts in 
shaping our knowledge" hinges upon a perspective about what the final truth of 
the matter in physics is. Which seems problematic.

   

  I do not think it hinges on the supposed final truth. None of us can use that 
as an argument. My argument is based on the simple observation that physicists 
do not study cognition and communication processes (or, when they do, it is as 
auxiliary specialists in other disciplines), while biologists deal with such 
processes all of the time. That is the best argument, btw, for biosemiotics: as 
there is so much spontaneous semiotic vocabolary in all of biology, why not 
take it seriously as technical notions?

   

  Best

  F

   



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