Jerry R.,
I'd say that CP 5.189 is a "syllogism" in a broad sense admitted by
Peirce, though the broad senses are not usual senses nowadays. Usually
people mean a deductive categorical syllogism, in Barbara and the rest.
To find the subject, middle, and predicate, one would have to rephrase
5.189, whose form is akin to modus ponens and the deductively invalid
affirmation of the consequent. One has to put it at least /somewhat/
into the form of a categorical syllogism; the categorical syllogism is
what has three terms, subject, middle, and predicate, in its schemata.
So here's 5.189's form half-morphed into the black beans example.
These beans are (oddly) black.
But if these beans were from that bag, then it would be a matter of
course for them to be black (since all the beans from that bag are black).
Ergo (plausibly), these beans are from that bag.
The subject is these beans.
The middle is beans from that bag.
The predicate is black.
Best, Ben
On 4/25/2016 1:28 PM, Jerry Rhee wrote:
Thanks Ben, Kirsti and list...
So, would you say that CP 5.189 qualifies as syllogism, i.e., is it
"hypothesis" based on what you know of what Peirce said on Aristotle?
Why or why not?
What's the predicate, subject and middle term?
Thanks,
Jerry R
On Mon, Apr 25, 2016 at 12:19 PM, <[email protected]
<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
CSP was thoroughly familiar with Aristotle, both his syllogisms and
their context in those times. It may be good to remember that
Aristotle's works, along all others, were translated into Latin by
the time we call the new age.
Translations always involve interpretation. Thus what has passed on
into modern logic & philosophy as 'Aristotelian syllogism' I find
gravely misunderstood. - Basics of Western math had changed, via Arab
influence. The birth of albegra (al-jabr) had taken place.
Ben is putting the discussion into right tracts in introducing CSP's
entries on the topic.
Kirsti
Benjamin Udell kirjoitti 25.4.2016 19:16:
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