Helmut, list
1] I'm not sure what a 'universally valid law' means. After all, 'laws' in themselves, are evolved habits, both in the natural world and in the conceptual world. Therefore, a conceptual belief, whether operative in a sect, religion, or myth, is as much a 'law' or 'habit-of-belief/behaviour' as in the natural realm. Such laws are not universal but are valid within a domain - only the most basic physical laws are universal and even then, restrictions apply. Or do you mean logical principles, such as cause and effect? 2] I don't think that the 'particular' is an 'illusion or collusion' - but these two terms need to be defined. As Peirce pointed out, the objective world exists, regardless of what anyone thinks of it...Therefore, I do think that the object exists 'before it is denoted'. To consider that objects only exist when denoted [by someone?] is..nominalism. 3] With regard to the process of semiosis, you could check Robert Marty's lattice, which shows, quite clearly, how semiosic interactions begin with the sensate stimuli of 1ns. 4] With regard to your question about unicorns - whether they 'exist' or are 'real' - again, both terms would have to be defined. But in my view, unicorns most certainly exist. They exist in the conceptual realm - but not in the biological realm. I don't think that our world can be confined only to physico-chemical or biological existents; our concepts and thoughts are also existent. I would define a universal, such as 'goodness' or 'beauty' as 'real', whereas a particular object, even if conceptual such as a unicorn or Zeus, would, in my view, be defined as 'existent'. Edwina On Mon 01/02/21 1:15 PM , Helmut Raulien h.raul...@gmx.de sent: Supplement: With "law" I was meaning "universally valid law", not a law stated by a sect, religion, or myth. These would not concern the difference between the NOT- operator and the EXIST- operator, as both are universal, none of them is particularistic. Particularistic "laws" I would not call "laws", but illusions or collusions. Edwina, I find it interesting, that you think, that the semiosic process begins with 1ns, I originally think so too. That is, because in my opinion, the object does not exist before it is denoted. The sign/representamen makes something (a subject?) an object. I only wrote "2-1-3" to not raise a discussion about sequence, as most others always vote for "2-1-3". Regarding the other points, maybe I have not used the proper terms "exist" and "real", or haven´t you, in this case? Isnt it so, that unicorns don´t exist, but are real? Or have I mixed it up again? Anyways, can anybody see through all the mistakes I have written that what I was meaning to tell, whether it is all bull or there is something about it? I thought having refuted the "transparent-world"-hypothesis and tried to show an alternative. Best, Helmut 01. Februar 2021 um 18:09 Uhr "Edwina Taborsky" wrote: Helmut - a few comments: 1] I think the semiosic process begins with 1ns, a sensation...and moves into awareness [2ns].. 2] With regard to your statement 'There is no unicorn that is not pink' - I think that this is what is known as an 'E' or negative form. Essentially you are saying: 'No unicorn is X. And the 'X' happens to be a description which is, 'not pink'. This is not a negative, merely a term that includes of ALL colours that are 'not pink'. It's a law, a major premiss.. Same as the universal positive of 'Every unicorn is pink'. [And this is NOT an illation but an assertion, a major premiss. 3] Laws are not always developed from external actual experience; they can develop within the mind as purely mental assertions [think of myths, of religions]. 4] I would also say that Unicorns DO 'exist'. They are mental constructs and we see their images in paintings and artwork all over the world. I don't think we can confine 'existence' to physical/biological forms; I think we have to include conceptual forms as well. After all don't symbols 'exist'? Edwina On Mon 01/02/21 11:03 AM , Helmut Raulien h.raul...@gmx.de sent: Auke, Jon, John, Edwina, All, I don´t see, that a transparent universe is the critical point: Jon A.S.´ example is valid in a transparent universe too: From "There is no unicorn that is not pink" , which is true, does not follow "Every unicorn is pink", which is not true, even or especially not in a transparent universe, in which everybody knows that unicorns don´t exist. I would like to know if you all ("ye", why has this word been abandoned?) think the following makes sense: I rather think it has to do with categories: A natural semiosis goes 2-1-3, a representative semiosis too, as it is a natural semiosis too. This is generation. But inside a representational semiosis the reflected is not generated, but degenerated, or remains on the same level. Meaning, you cannot conclude a law (3ns) from a situation (2ns). "There is no unicorn that is not pink" is a description, a situation, a status, a 2ns. "Every unicorn is pink" is an illation, consequence, law, 3ns. This cannot be inferred from the said 2ns. Only with another 3ns-law it might. This second premiss should have to be "Unicorns exist". If they would, the step from the double negation towards the illation would be valid. But why is the (fictional) latter premiss "Unicorns exist" not a 2ns, a status-report, but a 3ns, a law? I guess, the existence-operator does it. Either it is so, that certain operators that adress universality, such as "Every" or "Exist", make a proposition a law (3ns), while others, such as the NOT- operator, don´t, are merely status-reports, 2ns, although they are universal as well. The NOT-operator cannot make a law, because a law is only based on reality, existence, not on denial or neglection. The Exist-operator, and the Every-operator, and also the IF-THEN- operator make a law. A law is a produce of habit-formation, which has been a process in reality, so something positive. Negatives, things that are not there, or are missed, donot form habits, so not laws. Something like that it must be I think, what do you think? Best, Helmut 01. Februar 2021 um 13:07 Uhr "Auke van Breemen" wrote: John, This part of the article Edwina send is relevant: It follows that logic, in Peirce’s illative, ecstatic sense, is better understood as an inductive rather than a deductive science, for the ampliative work of inductive inference better exemplifies, in a richer, fuller sense, the illative, ecstatic essence of inference per se. While deduction still stands as essential and irreplaceable aspect of logic, it remains a purely formal and hence more abstract (and more ‘degenerate’) expression of the illative essence of inference (and argumentation) in its fullest sense. --- You keep assuming that Jon is talking about logic as a calculus in a transparant logical universe. But in this respect he never denied negation its role. As far as I get it, Jon's attempt can be seen as a diagrammatical calculus in the way of its development, but not for logic in the sense you take it, but as a dia-logical calculus. And in dialogues we ought to be interested in the reasons for the negation. Proof must be constructive. The shaded ovals are interesting, especially in combination with the sheets and the lines of identity running on (self conversation) and through different sets of them (comminication or dialogue). It is as if you at the end of your carreer are diving in the method of tenacity. Best, Auke Op 1 februari 2021 om 5:10 schreef "John F. Sowa" : Edwina, Thanks for the URL of that article. I changed the subject line to the title of https://scholar.uwindsor.ca/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1047&context=ossaarchive [1] The full title is "Inference as growth: Peirce�s ecstatic logic of illation", and I want to emphasize that this article is talking about illation as a process, not as a particular sign for if-then, The Latin verb 'infero' is irregular. Its present participle 'inferens' is the source of the English word 'inference'. Its past participle 'illatus' is the source of the words 'illation' and 'illative'. When Peirce said that 'ergo' (therefore) is a sign of illation that signals the end of a process. Modern logicians use the term 'rule of inference' for what Peirce called 'permission'. The present participle suggests one step of a continuing process. The article makes some good points, but it should not be considered as an argument for the scroll as a logical primitive. Peirce's permissions (in every version of EGs from 1897 to the end) depend only insertions and deletions in negative or positive areas. A scroll is just one particular arrangement. As Peirce wrote in R670, a scroll is equivalent to a nest of two negations. In L231 and later, he raised his pen when he drew two ovals in order to avoid any suggestion that the scroll shape had any significance. There is, of course, more to say. 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