1.  At this point I shall digress briefly to cover a flank, i.e. to address a 
concern that I suspect many students of Marxism may have.  

2.  I appear to be treating the LTV and the Sraffian system as 
alternative theories of (the "systematic component" of) relative prices.  
But isn't this to miss the point?  Wasn't Marx's Capital subtitled a 
Critique of Political Economy, not a Continuation of same?  How can I 
bracket Ricardo and Marx as proponents of the LTV when Marx was 
concerned to explode Ricardo, not merely to second him?  (I think Jim 
Devine has something like this in mind, and perhaps others too.)

3.  There is some force in this objection, but I think it is overdone.  
True, Marx's primary object was not to develop a theory of relative 
prices.  He wanted to lay bare the basis of profit in the capitalist 
exploitation of labor, to discern the "laws of motion" of capitalism, and 
to demonstrate that capitalism is a historically transient mode of 
production, whose internal contradictions necessarily propel it in the 
direction of its supercession by socialism.  From this standpoint, the 
LTV was but a stepping stone towards a theory of *surplus value* -- 
something quite foreign to Ricardo.  And, it may be said, whatever is 
valid or salvageable from among the latter ambitions may be 
reconstructed without appeal to the LTV.  

4.  This last claim I will tackle shortly.  For the moment I want to point 
out that although a theory of relative prices was not Marx's central 
concern, as such, it does nonetheless play a key role in his work -- if 
not in Roemerian reconstructions of it.  And it is a valid scientific 
question in its own right.  (And I might add that Ricardo, too, placed the 
LTV in the service of an analysis of the "laws of motion" of capitalism as 
he saw them -- e.g. the progress towards the famous "stationary state" 
via a falling rate of profit.)  

5.  Marx's analysis of exploitation assumes that the prices of 
commodities in terms of money are in proportion to their labor-values.  
There is weak and a strong reading of this assumption.  On the weak 
reading, it is just an expositional tactic for representing at the level of the 
individual factory and the individual worker, social relations that obtain 
between the class of workers and the class of capitalists.  It projects 
onto the *individual* working day a division into surplus and necessary 
labour time that is in reality a relationship between parts of the *total 
social working day*.  This is divided between time spent in industries 
producing workers' consumer goods and time spend producing goods 
used by the capitalists.  The weak position would say that these 
conditions of projection need not hold empirically for the thesis about 
the social totality to be valid.  

6.  The strong position would state that the conditions of projection are 
more or less empirically valid, in the sense that there is such a strong 
correlation between the prices of commodities and their values that 
what is true at the social level is also true at the micro level.  

7.  Hence, although the principal concern of Marx in his famous chapter 
on the commodity may have been the analysis of the *social form* of 
value, this does not indicate that he was unconcerned with the empirical 
relationship between price and value.  Generally he held that movements 
in price reflected movements in value.  This indeed was the specific 
form of representation of the category value (abstract social labour) in 
capitalist society.  The essence of this form of representation was that 
there was a homomorphism between the structure of prices and the 
structure of values.  Marx of course allows for disturbing elements -- 
temporary imbalances of supply and demand, differing organic 
compositions of capital between branches, etc. -- but the existence of 
these distorting factors no more invalidates the underlying hypothesis 
than the reality of air resistance invalidated Galileo's theory of falling 
bodies.  The claim is that the underlying tendency will produce clear 
measurable effects, which can be distinguished from the effects of the 
disturbing factors.  

[Paras 5-7 above are based on notes made by Paul Cockshott.]

End of third posting.



==========================
Allin Cottrell 
Department of Economics 
Wake Forest University
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
(910) 759-5762
==========================


Reply via email to