On 10 Dec 98 at 11:00, Ross B. Emmett wrote: > ================== HES POSTING ==================== > > I received the following query today from a graduate student in > economics. Since I have no idea about the answer, I am presenting it to > the list for feedback. Responses will be forwarded to the list and the > inquirer. -- RBE > > QUESTION: Did Mussolini utilize pareto welfare theory as a basis for his > economic policy? > > ============ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ============ > For information, send the message "info HES" to [EMAIL PROTECTED] No it was more the reverse; Pareto was guided in his approach, assumptions and what he assumed away by Mussolini-like ideology. Unless you want to assume that fascists seek to achieve a state at which no one person can be made better of without necessarily making another person worse off-- assuming away that anyone non-fascist is not a person (very common among fascists.) Jim Craven James Craven Dept. of Economics,Clark College 1800 E. McLoughlin Blvd. Vancouver, WA. 98663 [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Tel: (360) 992-2283 Fax: 992-2863 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ "The utmost good faith shall always be observed towards Indians; their land and property shall never be taken from them without their consent." (Northwest Ordinance, 1787, Ratified by Congress 1789) "To speak of atrocious crimes in mild language is treason to virtue." (Edmund Burke) *My Employer has no association with My Private and Protected Opinion* --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
