Barkley wrote: > Anyway, as a former participant not particularly >interested in getting into again in any depth, and not >knowing the details of Shaikh's particular take on the >theory, let me note that there are many explanations >promulgated out there for long waves. However, the most >frequently cited and most credible to my mind involve >technological change. This just reinforces what I was trying to say. What is the relevance of "technological change" for the economies of most of the world in the 19th century? It seems to me that the whole paradigm of "long waves" is very much tied up with West Europe and the US. There is no disagreement about the existence of "long waves", just how insightful they are. Louis Proyect (http://www.panix.com/~lnp3/marxism.html)
