But Marx does not explicitly equate use-values with wealth in his opening
rebuttal sentence. Value, use-value and wealth are confused and entangled in
his retort. Is the source of use-values itself a use-value, a value or
wealth? Doug's query from a while back hits the last sentence below quite
hard; where and when does the society/nature / become
temporally/epistemically/ontologically  permeable?

Is value theory another word for politics?

Ian


>
>
> At 02:59 PM 9/25/00 -0400, you wrote:
> > >Wasn't Marx himself critical of the notion that only labor creates
> > >value? I recall something about nature being a partner in the
> > >enterprise.
>
> for Marx, labor and nature both create use-values, whereas only labor
> creates value. Use-values refer to the relationship between
> commodities (or
> non-commodities) and people, whereas values are societal by nature.
>
> Jim Devine [EMAIL PROTECTED] &  http://bellarmine.lmu.edu/~jdevine
>

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