Let me ask a (possibly the same) question in another way. You make two claims: (a) According to the _Grundrisse_ human labor is more and more equalized (emptied of skill) through the development of technology and the division of labor and (b) this is also empirically true of the last 40 years in the United States.
Or in yet other words, Marx's quote from Edmund Burke re the sameness of the work of any 5 workers combined, became more and more the center of his whole work, and this was an accurate empirical prediction on his part. True, false, wholly off the wall? Carrol Timework Web wrote: > > Jim, > > Before I can answer your question, could you explain what _you_ mean > by "evidence". Bergson says, "The beliefs to which we most strongly adhere > are those of which we should find it most difficult to give an account, > and the reason by which we justify them are seldom those which have led us > to adopt them." Are you asking me to justify the statement (to you) or to > explain why I believe it? > > Tom Walker wrote: > > > As individual effort has come to play less > > and less of a role in social productivity, the methods of remuneration > have > > become more and more geared to (presumably) measuring and rewarding > > performance. -- > > Jim Devine wrote, > > >is there any evidence that "individual effort has ciome to play less and > >less of a role in social productivity"? and what, precisely does this > >mean?
