Any ideas on this??

On Some Common Macroeconomic Fallacies
(http://www.attac.org/fra/toil/doc/ideas01.htm)
by Prabhat Patnaik
Published in collaboration with IDEAS
[IDEAs has been established with the purpose of building a pluralist network 
of heterodox economists engaged in the teaching, research and application of 
critical analyses of economic development. http://www.networkideas.org]
Fallacy 1
The interest rate in the Economy is High because the Fiscal Deficit is high
The interest rate is the return on a particular asset, namely a debt 
instrument. It must be determined therefore as part of a stock equilibrium. 
The fiscal deficit is a flow concept. To say that the interest rate is 
determined by the size of the fiscal deficit is tantamount to saying that 
the price of a stock is determined by a flow, which is plain illogical.
But, it may be argued, while the fiscal deficit may not determine the 
interest rate, it certainly affects the interest rate, since it adds to the 
supply of the stock of debt instruments in the economy by floating 
additional government debt. This proposition too is fallacious, for at least 
two reasons. But before discussing these I should clarify a preliminary 
point: since debt instruments are also held by banks, whose liabilities can 
function as money, to talk of a demand for and supply of debt instruments 
independent of the demand for and supply of money is meaningless; the 
interest rate therefore is determined, as every school child knows, by the 
demand for and supply of money.
A fiscal deficit then can raise the interest rate (for a given money supply) 
through raising the demand for money via any one of the well-known motives 
for holding money (transactions, speculative, precautionary etc.). It does 
not constitute ipso facto a corresponding additional demand for money. 
Looking at it differently, the demand for money which affects the interest 
rate is the demand for holding money, not the demand for using money. To say 
that the demand for and supply of debt instrument is just the obverse of the 
demand for and supply of money, and that therefore the fiscal deficit which 
adds to the supply of debt instrument constitutes ipso facto an additional 
demand for money is a fallacy, the first of the two mentioned above. Just as 
my borrowing Rs.100 from a friend to buy a book does not ipso facto 
constitute a demand for money, likewise the government's borrowing money to 
finance investment (i.e. buy investment goods) does not ipso facto 
constitute a demand for money. It may give rise to a larger demand for money 
via, for example, increasing income and hence the transactions demand for 
money; but in this respect there is nothing special about the fiscal 
deficit. Indeed anything that raises the money income in the economy has 
this effect of raising the demand for money; emphasising the fiscal deficit 
has no rationale.
Such emphasis is fallacious for a second reason. In the above para we took 
money supply as given. But whether it is given, or rising, and if rising 
then by how much, are all matters of monetary policy. The interest rate is a 
monetary phenomenon. It cannot, at any time, be where it is without monetary 
policy keeping it where it is. No amount of fiscal deficit, or anything else 
for that matter, can have an iota of effect on the interest rate if monetary 
policy aims otherwise. Therefore if the interest rate is high, then the 
question to ask is why a "high interest rate" monetary policy is being 
pursued. The emphasis on the fiscal deficit precludes the asking of any such 
question (the answer to which would point to the fact that, under the new 
regime of "liberalisation" where the economy is more open than before to 
financial flows, retaining "investors' confidence", a euphemism for 
appeasing international finance capital, becomes necessary).
(Once when I was arguing against a senior economist from the World Bank that 
high interest rates had nothing per se to do with fiscal deficits but were 
high because of the pursuit of a monetary policy that kept them high, his 
response was: "Oh, but you are talking about a repressed financial regime!" 
This amounts to saying that in a "non-repressed", i.e. "liberal", financial 
regime, interest rates are high because of fiscal deficits. This argument 
has four notable features. First, it contains a tautology, since a 
"repressed" financial regime is by definition one where the interest rates 
are kept low. His argument in other words amounts to saying: "interest rates 
are high because in a high -interest rate regime, fiscal deficit keeps them 
high"! Secondly, the argument contains a non-sequitur. Once the tautology is 
recognised, dragging in the fiscal deficit introduces a complete 
non-sequitur. Thirdly, it is ideological. In presenting a non-sequitur he 
could have put in any term other than the fiscal deficit without altering by 
one iota the status of the argument in terms of its veracity. For instance, 
he could as well have said: "interest rates are high because in a high 
interest rate regime a high level of consumption keeps them so"! The fact 
that he chose fiscal deficit is indicative of the Bank's ideology. And 
fourthly, this tautology with an ideologically-motivated non-sequitur does 
not have one iota of explanatory power.)
Fallacy 2
A Large Fiscal Deficit is Necessarily Harmful
There are three possible adverse consequences of a fiscal deficit (I am 
excluding such consequences as "lowering investors' confidence", since they 
arise only in a particular regime, of "liberalisation", which itself has no 
sanctity). First, it may generate excess demand pressures in the economy, 
giving rise to inflation and/or a current account deficit on the balance of 
payments. Secondly, a fiscal deficit generates wealth inequalities in 
society. An excess of expenditure over income of the government must be 
matched by an excess of income over expenditure of the non-government 
sectors (i.e. of the private sector and the "rest of the World"). We have 
already mentioned the problem of enlarged foreign debt (which arises from a 
larger current account deficit on the BOP); so let us leave the "rest of the 
world" out. Financing government expenditure through larger domestic 
borrowing implies (relative to either not having this expenditure at all or 
financing it through taxes) larger private wealth. Since the propensity to 
save is larger among the rich, this necessarily means larger wealth in their 
hands; wealth inequalities therefore increase. What is particularly bizarre 
is when fiscal deficit causes inflation: here inflation squeezes out forced 
savings from the poor and working people, but these savings add to the 
wealth of the rich (Keynes had rejected such "deficit financing" in How to 
Pay for the War). Thirdly, deficit-financed expenditure (relative again to 
either tax-financed expenditure or to no such expenditure) sets up a 
debt-service obligation upon the government, which may aggravate fiscal 
strain in the future.
In a demand-constrained system the first of these adverse consequences would 
be inoperative (such a system may still experience a current account deficit 
following a fiscal deficit, since imports increase with output, but this is 
not specifically related to the fiscal deficit; any other way of enlarging 
output by a similar magnitude would have generated an equal current 
deficit). The other two adverse consequences of course would still remain. 
But this means that in a demand-constrained system, while it may be better 
to finance enlarged government expenditure through taxes (provided they do 
not nullify expansion) rather than through a deficit, it may still be 
preferable to have a deficit rather than not expand expenditure at all. A 
large fiscal deficit need not be shunned in a demand-constrained system.
But the matter appears in an altogether different light when we use the term 
fiscal deficit in the conventional sense in which it is used in India. Here 
fiscal deficit refers not to the deficit of the government sector as a whole 
but only to the excess of expenditure over income in the government budget. 
Since a large part of government activity is not covered in the budget, it 
is perfectly possible that the fiscal deficit as revealed in the budget is 
matched by a corresponding surplus not in private hands (we leave out the 
external sector for the moment), but in the hands of the non-budget sector 
of the government itself. If this happens, then the concern over private 
wealth inequalities and possible future fiscal strain (owing to debt-service 
payments) need not be serious. If the economy in addition happens to be 
demand-constrained, then a fiscal deficit need have no adverse consequences 
at all. Indeed in such a situation curtailing government expenditure in the 
name of keeping down the fiscal deficit would be a foolish policy to pursue, 
because it would perpetuate the demand constraint which could have been 
removed "costlessly" (i.e. with no adverse consequences). The foolishness 
would be truly astounding if, even in the presence of idle capacity located 
within the government sector itself, not only is fiscal deficit, which would 
have generated demand for using up this capacity, kept down, but "shortage 
of rupee resources" is simultaneously invoked as an argument to invite 
foreign investment to set up plants with the import of the very equipment 
whose production capacity is lying idle within the government sector.
In India, regrettably, fallacy 2 has become the cornerstone of official 
macroeconomic thinking; what is more, government policy even pursues the 
"astoundingly foolish" course just mentioned. Let me give two examples to 
illustrate my point.
At present there are over 32 million tonnes of food-grain stocks of which at 
least 13 million tonnes are surplus stocks. These surplus stocks should be 
used to alleviate poverty and hunger through an employment-generation 
programme, which, if properly conceived and executed, can have the 
additional advantage of giving rise to rural capital formation. Even if this 
programme is financed entirely through deficit financing, this would have no 
adverse consequences: the money spent would accrue to the FCI (ignoring for 
simplicity the non-food component of the employment-programme), which in 
turn would use it to repay bank-credit locked up in stock-holding. The 
government's net indebtedness would not have gone up; its total interest 
payment obligation would not have gone up (would have even come down if 
government borrowing costs less than FCI borrowing); and yet rural poverty 
would have come down through the elimination (even if temporary) of the 
irrational spectre of unused rotting food-stocks in the midst of mass 
hunger. True, the fiscal deficit shown in the budget would have gone up, but 
attributing economic significance to this fact per se is precisely the 
fallacy we are talking about. The current budget however undertakes no such 
programme. On the contrary it does the very opposite: it attempts to bring 
down this wrongly-conceived notion of deficit by raising food prices for all 
and by virtually winding up the public distribution system for the so-called 
"above poverty line" population which actually includes vast numbers of the 
poor.
My second example relates to the power sector. There is an almost unanimous 
view in government and media circles that India desperately needs foreign 
capital to develop its power sector. But this need cannot be for technology 
(which we have) or for foreign exchange (which would not be required in the 
first place if domestically produced equipment is used). The only possible 
argument in support of this view can be that MNCs bring finance, that if 
they were not entrusted with the task then the government would have to 
finance these power projects from its budgetary resources, which typically 
would mean a larger fiscal deficit.
In short, power projects are being entrusted to MNCs in order to avoid a 
larger fiscal deficit. But, as long as unutilised capacity owing to 
deficient demand exists in the power equipment and its feeder units 
belonging to the public sector itself, to talk of the government's 
experiencing a shortage of finance for power investment is meaningless. If 
the government borrowed Rs.100 and spent it on a power project then the bulk 
of it would come back as operating surplus to BHEL and other public sector 
enterprises, so that the net indebtedness of the government would not 
increase despite the apparent increase in the fiscal deficit. But by 
invoking a financial constraint where none exists, the government not only 
succumbs to MNCs' demand for their "pound of flesh" (including guaranteed 
rates of return on inflated capital costs), but also perpetuates the demand 
constraint faced by the public sector units. What is more, this perpetuation 
would be used as an argument for declaring these units to be "sick" and for 
privatising them 'for a song". The most charitable interpretation one can 
place on government action is the one I have placed, namely that it betrays 
"astounding foolishness".
Fallacy 3
Disinvesting public sector equity is a valid way of closing the fiscal 
deficit
I argued above that there could be only three possible adverse consequences 
of a fiscal deficit. Now, disinvestment of public sector equity, as compared 
to a fiscal deficit, makes no difference to wealth inequalities; the private 
sector only swaps direct or indirect claims upon the government for public 
sector equity. There is in other words a change in the form of 
wealth-holding, not in the magnitude or distribution of it as would happen 
with by a fiscal deficit. Likewise, while a fiscal deficit sets up interest 
payment obligations upon the government, disinvestment of public sector 
equity entails foregoing future incomes (on this more later), so that there 
is nothing to choose between the two in terms of the future fiscal strain. 
The claim that disinvestment of public sector equity is a valid way of 
closing the fiscal deficit, i.e. would somehow ameliorate the harmful 
consequences of a fiscal deficit, can be sustained therefore only if it 
entails less excess demand pressures than a corresponding fiscal deficit 
would.
This would indeed be the case if those who purchased public sector equity 
did so by reducing their consumption or investment. Now, to my knowledge, no 
protagonist of the sale of public sector equity has ever argued that such 
sale "crowds out" private investment (for then the case for such sale would 
be considerably weakened). And nobody surely believes that people stint on 
consumption to purchase public sector equity. The purchase of public sector 
equity in other words has scarcely any flow-expenditure-diminishing effect 
on the private sector.
It may be thought that while such purchase may not directly reduce flow 
private expenditure, if it is financed by borrowing then less credit may be 
available for deployment in other uses, resulting in an indirect curtailment 
of private flow expenditure. But this argument is both empirically 
questionable and logically untenable. It presupposes a supply constraint on 
credit, which is empirically questionable for large chunks of the nineties, 
including now. Besides, if indeed credit were supply-constrained, then the 
financing of the fiscal deficit itself would have curtailed private flow 
expenditure, so that the fiscal deficit would not have generated excess 
demand in the first place, and the need for covering it would not have 
arisen at all.
Now, if disinvesting public sector equity does not reduce flow private 
expenditure, then the claim that it is a valid way of covering the fiscal 
deficit falls to the ground. Instead of the government borrowing Rs.100, 
say, from the banks to finance its expenditure (which is what a fiscal 
deficit entails), someone else borrows Rs.100 from the banks, hands it to 
the government in lieu of public sector equity, and the government then 
spends it. The macroeconomic consequences, in terms of aggregate demand, are 
exactly the same in the two cases. If with a fiscal deficit there was going 
to be excess demand-generated inflation, then exactly the same denouement 
would follow from public sector disinvestment. If the poor were going to be 
hit by a fiscal deficit-caused inflation in the first scenario, they would 
be equally hit in the second. But the second scenario entails a gratuitous 
handing over of public sector equity to private hands on the basis of false 
claims (of avoiding the ill-effects of a fiscal deficit).
Fallacy 4
Selling Public Enterprises to Retire Government Debt reduces Future Fiscal 
Strain
This argument has been put forward quite explicitly by the Finance Minister 
himself in his recent budget speech. The price at which a public enterprise 
(or its equity) sells in the market is determined by the discounted value of 
its expected stream of returns. Suppose, for example, that a public 
enterprise is expected to fetch for an infinite period in the future stream 
of returns of Rs.10 every year. If the interest rate is 10 percent, then its 
market value would be Rs.100 (we are ignoring risks for simplicity); and if 
these Rs.100 are used for retiring public debt, then the interest payments 
saved every year are exactly Rs.10. The government in other words has lost 
Rs.10 per annum of returns from the enterprise and has saved Rs.10 per annum 
of interest payments. It is neither better nor worse off; there is no easing 
of its fiscal strain in the future.
Selling public enterprises to retire debt would indeed be worthwhile if and 
only if the enterprise sells for a price higher than the market value figure 
obtained when the stream of returns expected from it (when it is under 
government ownership) is discounted at the rate of interest payable on 
public debt. This translates roughly into the proposition that such a course 
of action is worthwhile for the government, and would ease future fiscal 
strain, if the enterprise sells for a price higher than its current market 
value (at the interest rate on public debt). On the other hand if it sells 
for a lower price than its market value (at the public debt rate of 
interest), then the future fiscal situation is worsened.
Now, there is absolutely no reason why the enterprise should sell at a 
higher price than this market value; and none of those who advocate such 
sale has ever made out a case that this indeed would happen. On the 
contrary, as everybody knows and as testified to by a host of authorities 
from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India to an impeccable 
"liberaliser" like Mr.Chidambaram (in the GAIL disinvestment case), the sale 
of public sector equity is usually way below its market value, which only 
worsens the fiscal situation in the future. Not only then is there no case 
for selling public enterprises to retire public debt, but it is actually a 
"rip off" which only worsens the fiscal situation in the future.
One can go on with the list of fallacies. In fact a whole phoney 
macroeconomics is being propagated these days from the Bretton Woods 
institutions, which unfortunately, even in this country with its remarkable 
tradition of economics, has been swallowed not only by our Finance Ministry 
but even by large segments of the economics profession. How else can one 
explain the fact that despite evidence of growing rural poverty, of a 
"rolling back" of rural employment diversification, of an absolute drop in 
per capita real consumption expenditure in rural India (which my colleague 
Sheila Bhalla has called an "economic development disaster"), and of 
persisting industrial stagnation, the most significant problem of the 
economy highlighted in the media is the fiscal deficit! And that too in the 
midst of huge unutilised industrial capacity and unsold foodgrain stocks!
May be I am being unfair. My claim about the above propositions constituting 
fallacies is based on macroeconomics no more complex than IS-LM. I would 
like any of those who believe in the correctness of the above propositions 
to set out simply but rigorously, in the manner of IS-LM, what their 
macroeconomics is. Only one thing I cannot accept: a "liberal regime", "the 
need to retain investors' confidence" etc. cannot be premises of the 
argument, they can only be conclusions. "Liberalisation" has to be shown to 
be good for the people; people cannot be assumed to exist for making 
"liberalisation" work. For the rest, I go along with Joan Robinson: "Let a 
hundred flowers bloom. Let a thousand schools of thought contend. But let 
them all state their assumptions."




_________________________________________________________________
Send and receive Hotmail on your mobile device: http://mobile.msn.com

Reply via email to