>>> [EMAIL PROTECTED] 03/08/04 23:56 PM >>> Aldo Balardini asks me several questions: >How do you define the price of oil? < the same way most people do.
_______________________________________________________ Fabian: Most people define the price of oil as the result of OPEC's cartel power. In your first message you said oil crises happened independent of OPEC, from which I assume that oil pricing is also independent of OPEC. If you agree with Bina then you are not defining the price of oil as most people do. Explain please. _______________________________________________________ >Cyrus Bina is the only one so far to have attempted to explain the 1970's oil crisis >using the standard interpretation of Marx's theory of rent. < I was thinking of his analysis (though I haven't read it in awhile), since Marx's rent theory suggests that the price of oil is determined partly by demand (unlike, say, in manufacturing). >Do you agree with Bina that cost conditions in the US, the highest cost region in the >international oil, determine the the "world" price of oil? < it depends on demand. If demand is sufficiently low, cost conditions in the US are irrelevant. If it's high, then we might see a higher-cost producer as determining. Jim D. _______________________________________________________ Fabian: Correct me if I'm wrong - You're saying that the determination of the price of oil is procyclical; determined by OPEC during throughs and by US wells during booms. If this is the case how can this be reconciled with the standard interpretation of Marx's theory of rent that the price of oil (or agriculture goods) is ALWAYS determined by the high cost producer (least productive land)?
