You seem to imply that the availability of Gov securities reduces
consumption
of the rich.  If not, if their saving is no different, how are they
richer?

Re: the alleged debasement, the initial borrowing finances something.
Borrowing
v. taxes just changes when the bill is paid.  Present value of Gov
spending is more 
likely to be increased by the use of borrowing, not reduced, since the
bill is
presented to future, richer generations.

You classicist you.




-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected]
[mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Doug Henwood
Sent: Monday, May 18, 2009 1:59 PM
To: Progressive Economics
Subject: Re: [Pen-l] Vulnerable logic in Dean Baker's argument?


On May 18, 2009, at 1:20 PM, Max B. Sawicky wrote:

> Consider the counter-factual -- the bondholder doesn't buy the Gov
> bond, he buys a private sector asset.
> Abstracting from risk/return, how are the rich any richer?

What kind of Keynesian are you? Much government borrowing represents  
money that wouldn't otherwise have been spent. There's no crowding out

- it's an addition.

That aside, higher gov debt service means less money to spend on  
better things, like education or health or environmental  
reconstruction. It's a debased use of public funds.

Doug
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