I corrected him, pointing out that wants and desires could only be unlimited _in principle_. To assert that they are actually unlimited ignores the basic condition that each desire must have a duration.
But it got me to thinking that I usually hear that trite piece of economic wisdom in pretty much the vulgar form my interlocuter presented it.
So my question is: do economic textbooks usually/always/seldom make the in principle distinction? Is there a "canonical" statement of this proposition?
The Sandwichman
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