Okay, I think I am now able to state more clearly the problem which has been bugging me.
A contract between capitalist and worker exchanges labor power for money. The worker gives the capitalist control of his labor power, the capitalist gives him money. But isn't saying "the worker gives the capitalist control of his labor power" the same as saying "the worker performs the specific acts of labor the capitalist desires." So, could you say "the capitalist gives the worker money in exchange for the worker performing the specific acts of labor that the capitalist desires" Of course, this seems wrong ecause apparently LP is still sold even when workers resist capital on the shop floor and don't do the specific acts of labor the capitalist desires. So, in light of this could someone please explain precisely how we know that labor power, rather than labor, is what is sold (at least in most situations). This has *really* been bothering me the past couple weeks or so.
