On 8/7/06, michael a. lebowitz <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Bonapartism is a term used a lot these days--- in relation to
Venezuela, South Africa and now Iran. If it is so present, shouldn't
we all try to understand it better? Alternatively, is it being used
as an alternative to concrete analysis? Why do you see Iran as an
example of this? NB.-- This is not an antagonistic question.
michael L
another non-antagonistic question: Mike, how do you like Draper's
collation of Marx's writings on Bonapartism in his KARL MARX'S THEORY
OF REVOLUTION?
jim devine
