You know the conversation has hit  the wall when you start
hearing..."That's what Lenin believed, too."  And, "Funny, I don't
remember Engels saying that."   Well, I'm sure you didn't hear it here
first, but Lenin believed a lot of things, and a lot of them were wrong.
He even wrote them down.  And they were still wrong...look at his
Imperialism-- right in its polemic against Kautsky and wrong in
everything else.  (You know, I bet if you pay attention and sift through
VL's Development of Capitalism in Russia, checking it with the data we
now have, you're going to find some wrong things there, too).

But let's review:  The issue is the origin of capitalism.  The usual
explanations are a breakdown of feudalism due to repeated Malthusian
crises, and the "barter, truck, trade" impulse to capitalism that we all
carry in us, coded somewhere in some part of our primordial soup DNA.
Go forth and multiply!  Create 2,3, many Companies of Merchant
Adventurers.

There is a signature characteristic to capitalism, to private property
as capital, to wealth as capital and that is a social relation
separating labor from the means of labor.  Now if slavery was
capitalism, either contained that social relation in itself, or created
that social relation somewhere else, then it would seem capitalism
really predates....just about everything including feudalism.

In the case of England, capitalist relations of agricultural production
are established, and well-established, before the colonies contribute
mightily to the English workshop or national coffers, before England
enters the slave trade, before England wins the asiento, before India is
brought to the edge of destruction.

Now regarding the US... really as revolutions go, the US wasn't.  Simply
wasn't.  I hope that doesn't make me appear any less unpatriotic than I
am glad to be, but on the scale of things.. a revolution? War of
Independence?  Well, hell, that's what they, I guess not including
Lenin, call it.  And dadgummit, I think they, whoever they are, got it
just about right.

We all know that the US War of Independence was noway nohow a bourgeois
revolution, nor a capitalist revolution.  And we've all been taught,
that the US Civil War is about as close as US gets to a revolution, only
to capitulate before the counterrevolution against Reconstruction,
finding once again that private property is thicker than social
transformations of production.

But the bottom line is really the bottom line, and the thing about the
slave trade, about gold, about looting, etc., it did not, and does not,
in and of itself create, more than create, exist in and depend upon the
organization of its own negation.   And I know Marx said that.


----- Original Message -----
From: "Louis Proyect" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <PEN-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU>
Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2007 6:40 PM
Subject: Re: [PEN-L] What Marx meant by primitive accumulation


> sartesian wrote:
>
> >No, the issue is precisely not did slavery, did looting, did murder
> >contribute to capitalism.... no issue because there is no argument.
Of
> >course all those things did.
> >
> >
> >
> So the class that led the American revolution, or at least a good part
> of it, was not involved with capitalist production. Interesting. Very
> interesting. I was always under the impression that 1776 represented
the
> vanguard of capitalist property relations. That is what Lenin thought
as
> well.
>

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