On 6/26/07, Jim Devine <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
The second strand of his argument is, however, far more surprising.
"The claim that the US has a more unequal pay structure than that of
Europe is false. All calculations that purport to verify this claim
have been based on comparisons between the entire US and individual
countries of Europe," he says.
"These calculations invalidly compare a large country with many small
ones, and they exclude consideration of large inequalities that exist
between European countries. When these inequalities are added in, the
pay structure of the US emerges as more egalitarian than that of
Europe."
So should evaluations of inequality in the U.S. economy also include Mexico?
