On 10/5/05, Autrijus Tang <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > However: > f:{1}.() > > still parses as > > (&f(:{1})).() > > as the "adverbial block" form takes precedence. Is that also wrong?
No, that seems right to me, much in the same way that: $x.{1}.{2} Binds to the left. Luke