Klint Gore <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > On Tue, 25 Oct 2005 23:41:54 -0400 (EDT), Bruce Momjian > <pgman@candle.pha.pa.us> wrote: >> test=> select >> test-> ('2005-10-30 13:22:00-05'::timestamptz - >> test(> '2005-10-29 13:22:00-04'::timestamptz); >> ?column? >> ---------- >> 25:00:00 >> (1 row)
> Is that actually the correct answer? I'm of the opinion that the correct answer, or at least the usually desired answer, is "1 day". > Disregarding daylight savings, there is 25hrs between them. Once > daylight savings is taken into account there should be 24 or 26 hours > between them (southern/northern hemisphere respectively). If you want the numeric "25 hours" answer, you can always extract(epoch) from both of them and subtract. There isn't any way to get a symbolic "1 day" answer unless we make timestamp subtraction provide it. regards, tom lane ---------------------------(end of broadcast)--------------------------- TIP 1: if posting/reading through Usenet, please send an appropriate subscribe-nomail command to [EMAIL PROTECTED] so that your message can get through to the mailing list cleanly