I'm not seeing it. It seems to me that timestamps can be defined WITH or WITHOUT time zone, and the semantics of calculating an interval are fairly clear in either case. An interval doesn't seem like it should have an associated time zone. Adding an interval to a timestamp would use the time zone of the timestamp.
What am I missing? -Kevin >>> Tom Lane <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> >>> "Kevin Grittner" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > The standard seems rich enough in this area to > address all of the concerns I've seen expressed on this thread. > All the usual advantages for standards compliance accrue, as well. Last I checked, the standard completely failed to deal with daylight savings time changes, making it pretty useless as a guide to solving the problems we want to deal with. regards, tom lane ---------------------------(end of broadcast)--------------------------- TIP 1: if posting/reading through Usenet, please send an appropriate subscribe-nomail command to [EMAIL PROTECTED] so that your message can get through to the mailing list cleanly