Hi
I am also interested in this type of setup. However, in the example
below
I am a little confused as to why the table entry is 1, -3
And the subsequent select statement . I would appreciate an explanation
on the select statement. I do not understand the syntax.
Thanks in advance
Hector Villarreal
SELECT a.timestamp::timestamptz from (SELECT '2006-10-03
09:00'||"timezone" as timestamp from storetz where id = 1) as a;
timestamp
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Andrew Sullivan
Sent: Tuesday, October 03, 2006 7:52 AM
To: chrisj
Cc: pgsql-sql@postgresql.org
Subject: Re: [SQL] Assigning a timestamp without timezone to a timestamp
On Tue, Oct 03, 2006 at 07:26:52AM -0700, chrisj wrote:
> location, but they are the directive to all store locations saying:
"In the
> context of the timezone your store is located in, these are the hours
you
> should be open.
Ah. Well, then, right, it _does_ have to be timezone free. That's
actually the only case I'd use that. Sorry, I'm dim, and didn't
understand properly what you were doing. (I read the "relative to
the store's own time zone" to refer to the corporate office. No, I
don't know why, either. Told you I'm dim.)
Anyway, here's something that worked for me (expanding this into your
case ought not to be too tricky):
testing=# SELECT * from storetz ;
id | timezone
----+----------
1 | -03
(1 row)
testing=# SELECT a.timestamp::timestamptz from (SELECT '2006-10-03
09:00'||"timezone" as timestamp from storetz where id = 1) as a;
timestamp
------------------------
2006-10-03 12:00:00+00
(1 row)
A
--
Andrew Sullivan | [EMAIL PROTECTED]
When my information changes, I alter my conclusions. What do you do
sir?
--attr. John Maynard Keynes
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