I asked WolframAlpha the following: limit of ((x/4) tan((pi/2)(1-x))) as x-> 0 and it replied: 1/(2 Pi) (together with a nice graph).
On Wed, Feb 27, 2013 at 10:41 AM, Raul Miller <[email protected]> wrote: > On Wed, Feb 27, 2013 at 7:30 AM, Aai <[email protected]> wrote: > >> (*:100)&* @: area _ > >> 0 > >> No, unfortunately J does not interpret the above sentence in that sense. > > > > If I'm not wrong then J is right about this one: > > > > pi(n-1) pi 0 > > tg ------- tg ---- > > 2 n 2 0 > > lim -------------- = ---------- = ---- = 0 > > n -> oo 4 n oo oo > > > > But the accuracy gives us a much earlier decline to zero, because > ... > > It's usually a mistake to use infinity in calculations - infinity is > an inconsistent number so you should expect inconsistent results when > it is used in calculations. (Something related often happens when > reasoning about division by an unknown sum.) > > Infinity is mostly convenient way of indicating neglect and, ideally, > focussing the conversation elsewhere. > > -- > Raul > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- > For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
