Not a silly question at all.
No. Every verb has access to its own private namespace and to the
public namespaces. No explicit verb can access the private namespace of
another verb. Where the verb is defined makes no difference.
If you want v to access nouns from u, you must pass them as arguments,
or put them into a locale that both verbs know.
Implicit verbs are different: they run in the namespace of the explicit
verb they are called from.
These are the normal access rules. Using u. and v. can bend the rules a
little, but I suggest you not use them.
Henry Rich
On 10/24/2020 9:51 PM, pietdion wrote:
I have an explicitly defined verb v say
Verb v uses, inside its definition, another verb u say
Verb u depends on a constants which are calculated inside v.
Can I “redefine” u inside v?
Apologies if this is an obviously silly question.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
--
This email has been checked for viruses by AVG.
https://www.avg.com
----------------------------------------------------------------------
For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
