On Wed, 26 Sep 2007 16:06:08 +0200, Boris Zbarsky <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Anne van Kesteren wrote:
Yes. If I get all this stuff correctly a script could be running on
bar.com using the XMLHttpRequest from another frame which is on
foo.bar.com. Depending on which definition is used it can either access
bar.com or foo.bar.com content (but not both), right?
Basically, yes.
Hmm, actually, per HTML5 it seems that's impossible because the origin of
bar.com and foo.bar.com are not the same and therefore you can't access
any members of foo.bar.com from bar.com or vice versa. document.domain can
change this I suppose, but doesn't it change the origin as well then for
both domains making this not a problem for deciding what the origin is?
(It's still relevant of course for determining how to resolve URIs.)
--
Anne van Kesteren
<http://annevankesteren.nl/>
<http://www.opera.com/>
