> For every floating point
> number there is a corresponding real number, but 0% of real numbers
> can be represented exactly by floating point numbers.

It seems to me that there  are a great many real numbers that can be
represented exactly by floating point numbers.  The number 1 is an
example.

I suppose that if you divide that count by the infinite count of all
real numbers, you could argue that the result is 0%.
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