i test the null that the coin is fair (p(succ) = p(fail) = 0.5) with
one trail and get a p-value of 1. actually i want to proof the
alternative H that the estimate is different from 0.5, what certainly
can not be aproven here. but in reverse the p-value of 1 says that i
can 100% sure that the estimate of 0.5 is true (??) - that's the point
that astonishes me.
thanks if anybody could clarify this for me,
kay
Zitat von Greg Snow <greg.s...@imail.org>:
Try thinking this one through from first principles, you are
essentially saying that your null hypothesis is that you are
flipping a fair coin and you want to do a 2-tailed test. You then
flip the coin exactly once, what do you expect to happen? The
p-value of 1 just means that what you saw was perfectly consistent
with what is predicted to happen flipping a single time.
Does that help?
If not, please explain what you mean a little better.
--
Gregory (Greg) L. Snow Ph.D.
Statistical Data Center
Intermountain Healthcare
greg.s...@imail.org
801.408.8111
-----Original Message-----
From: r-help-boun...@r-project.org [mailto:r-help-boun...@r-
project.org] On Behalf Of Kay Cichini
Sent: Wednesday, September 01, 2010 3:06 PM
To: r-help@r-project.org
Subject: [R] general question on binomial test / sign test
hello,
i did several binomial tests and noticed for one sparse dataset that
binom.test(1,1,0.5) gives a p-value of 1 for the null, what i can't
quite
grasp. that would say that the a prob of 1/2 has p-value of 0 ?? - i
must be
wrong but can't figure out the right interpretation..
best,
kay
-----
------------------------
Kay Cichini
Postgraduate student
Institute of Botany
Univ. of Innsbruck
------------------------
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