Perhaps you were trying for "as sample size increases, variance *of the mean* decreases" (a least when variance is finite). If you swap "mean" and "var" in your code, I think you will get what you are looking for.

-- Tony Plate

At Tuesday 05:42 PM 8/19/2003 +0000, Padmanabhan, Sudharsha wrote:

Hello,

I am running a few simulations for clinical trial anlysis. I want some help
regarding the following.

We know trhat as the sample size increases, the variance should decrease, but
I am getting some unexpected results. SO I ran a code (shown below) to check
the validity of this.

large<-array(1,c(1000,1000))
small<-array(1,c(100,1000))
for(i in 1:1000){large[i,]<-rnorm(1000,0,3)}
for(i in 1:1000){small[i,]<-rnorm(100,0,3)}}
yy<-array(1,100)
for(i in 1:100){yy[i]<-var(small[i,])}
y1y<-array(1,1000)
for(i in 1:1000){y1y[i]<-var(large[i,])}
mean(yy);mean(y1y);
[1] 8.944
[1] 9.098


This shows that on an average,for 1000 such samples of 1000 Normal numbers, the variance is higher than that of a 100 samples of 1000 random numbers.

Why is this so?


Can someone please help me out????


Thanks.

Regards

~S.

______________________________________________
[EMAIL PROTECTED] mailing list
https://www.stat.math.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help

______________________________________________ [EMAIL PROTECTED] mailing list https://www.stat.math.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help

Reply via email to