Is it possible to fit a lagged regression, "y[t]=b0+b1*x[t-1]+e", using the function "lag"? If so, how? If not, of what use is the function "lag"? I get the same answer from y~x as y~lag(x), whether using lm or arima. I found it using y~c(NA, x[-length(x)])). Consider the following:

> set.seed(1)
> x <- rep(c(rep(0, 4), 9), len=9)
> y <- (rep(c(rep(0, 5), 9), len=9)+rnorm(9)) # y[t] = x[t-1]+e
>
> lm(y~x)
(Intercept) x 1.2872 -0.1064 > lm(y~lag(x))
(Intercept) lag(x) 1.2872 -0.1064 > arima(y, xreg=x)
intercept x
1.2872 -0.1064
s.e. 0.9009 0.3003
sigma^2 estimated as 6.492: log likelihood = -21.19, aic = 48.38
> arima(y, xreg=lag(x))
intercept lag(x)
1.2872 -0.1064
s.e. 0.9009 0.3003
> arima(y, xreg=c(NA, x[-9]))
intercept c(NA, x[-9])
0.4392 0.8600
s.e. 0.2372 0.0745
sigma^2 estimated as 0.3937: log likelihood = -7.62, aic = 21.25
> arima(ts(y), xreg=lag(ts(x)))
arima(x = ts(y), xreg = lag(ts(x)))
intercept lag(ts(x))
1.2872 -0.1064
s.e. 0.9009 0.3003
sigma^2 estimated as 6.492: log likelihood = -21.19, aic = 48.38


Thanks for your help. Spencer Graves

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