G'day Benjamin,
On Mon, 6 Aug 2007 22:49:04 -0400
Benjamin Zuckerberg <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Quick question...is there a way of specifying a y-intercept value
> within a lm statement. For example, if I wanted to specify the
> regression to pass through the origin I would enter lm(y~0+x). But
> can I specify an actual term such as 1,2,3,4, etc. as an intercept
> value? Thank you!
Not tested, but lm(y-1~x+0) should work for an intercept value of 1.
But I have to wonder why you are interested in this. Isn't regression
through the intercept already bad enough? ;-)
HTH.
Cheers,
Berwin
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