Mariano,

There is a huge and important difference between the two approaches suggested 
for your data.  The log ratio of proportions (i.e. the empirical logit of the 
Yes proportion) estimates the residual variance.  The binomial model assumes 
the residual variance is determined by the arbitrary (and made-up) sample size 
of 20 "tries" per response, in combination with the estimated mean proportions. 
 To see the arbitrariness, if you don't already, re-express your proportions 
out of 200, instead of 20, because 0/200, 10/200, ... 200/200 also give your 
observed responses.  The coefficient estimates will be the approximately same 
but their variances will not.  (If you didn't have additional random effects in 
the model, the coefficient estimates would be exactly the same but the 
variances would be 1/10's those from N=20).

If you are going to use the binomial GLM, I believe you must add overdispersion 
to the model.  Either as an individual random effect, or by using a 
quasibinomial response distribution.  Overdispersion is not necessary for the 
log proportion response because the residual error variance conceptually 
estimates that overdispersion.

Philip 

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