Could one argue that the court in this case in effect coerced this association upon the plaintiff, in disregard of her freedom of expressive association?
Would it not be more accurate to say that the court found no redressable defamation injury to the claimant resulting from a private party having, effectively, coerced this association upon her, and that private party having done so in disregard of her freedom from governmental interference of expressive association?
Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ
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