Prof. Lipkin was proselytized by his neighbor. They both handled it with tolerance and maturity. How does that change the fact of proselytization? How does what the neighbor did not constitute an inducement to change religions -- the definition of proselytize? This was no mere "it came up in conversation" or informal, impromptu exchange of views over the backyard fence when doing lawn chores. That the neighbor lacked evangelical fervor (militant relentless advocacy) does not change the proselytization -- the inducement to change beliefs to something else.

Steve

On Saturday, December 18, 2004, at 08:25 AM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

In a message dated 12/17/2004 3:22:37 PM Eastern Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

I had a neighbor, who characterized himself as "a born again Christian."  Knowing that I am Jewish, he one day presented me with literature from "Jews for Jesus."  He explained to me his reasons for doing so, and I told him that I've thought about religion a great deal, even taught the philosophy of religion, and I have well-decided beliefs on the matter and essentially concluded thanks but no thanks. Our "good neighbor" relationship was none the worse--indeed, it probably became richer--as a result of this episode. Had he pursued his religious inclinations to convert me, or had I persisted in challenging his convictions, our relationship might not have withstood the test of time.



This narrative is evidence aplenty that the discussion can move forward in meaningful ways without the "proselytizing" crutch to aid it.  Notice that you say he "presented" you the material and he "explained" his reasons for doing so. 

It's a small matter to make these mortals so happy.

Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ


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Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox: 202-806-8017
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"God, give us grace to accept with serenity the things that cannot be changed, courage to change the things which should be changed, and the wisdom to distinguish the one from the other."

Reinhold Neibuhr 1943

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