This very paradox -- and the problems of the limits of logic and language in the law -- was the main impetus for an article I wrote some years back about how RFRA could not be interpreted or applied in a literal way. Instead, there is an inherent sliding scale of compellingness of the interest the the restrictiveness of the standard that varies with context -- a point made explicitly by Ginsburg in this opinion (p. 12). The rhetorical mismatch is unfortunate and unnecessary as a matter of logic and language -- Congress could have explicitly adopted some other standard, but politics being what they are, this was probably the best that could be done. I find very interesting that the concern some of us have had that the Court would say that Congress simply cannot set standards of interpretation for freedoms like this has been answered as at least a number of us hoped and expected -- there is play in the joints -- while Congress cannot set the minimum of protection (cannot change the Court's interpretation of the 1st amendment, Congress can, so long as it respects those minimum standards, set other standards -- here, there is room to play between the free exercise and establishment constitutional standards. Steve On May 31, 2005, at 11:47 AM, Marty Lederman wrote:
-- Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox: 202-806-8017 Howard University School of Law fax: 202-806-8567 2900 Van Ness Street NW mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Washington, DC 20008 http://www.law.howard.edu/faculty/pages/jamar/ "Example is always more efficacious than precept." Samuel Johnson, 1759 |
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