In a message dated 11/19/08 2:38:57 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes: > ... This is not a problem if both parties agree, after the dispute has > arisen, to go to the religious court, and if both parties abide by the > judgment. > That is just a mechanism for voluntary dispute resolution; the government is > not involved. But even in this situation, if the religious court grants a > divorce that the state recognizes, we have gone beyond voluntary dispute > resolution. > Why is it more problematic for the state to recognize a divorce decreed by a religious authority than it is for the state to recognize a marriage decreed by a religious authority? (Not a rhetorical question.)
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