I think the alternative reading that Chris offers is the appropriate way to 
understand this language. I don't think this language precludes an argument 
that a law is not neutral or generally applicable without proving 
discriminatory purpose. I actually thought this language was a plus for free 
exercise claims. As I recollect in Lukumi, Kennedy could not get a majority to 
agree that it was permissible to inquire into legislative motive to challenge 
Hialeah's ordinance. By juxtaposing Lukumi and Washington v. Davis, the Court 
gives litigators a bit more of an argument that direct inquiries into 
legislative motive might be as permissible in free exercise cases as they are 
in equal protection cases.
Alan Brownstein



From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Christopher Lund
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:00 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

There's this potentially troubling line in the Supreme Court's recent decision 
in Ashcroft v. Iqbal (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I wanted 
to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:

"The factors necessary to establish a Bivens violation will vary with the 
constitutional provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious discrimination 
in contravention of the First and Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear 
that the plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with 
discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 
520, 540-541 (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426 U. S. 229, 
240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."

I am a little distressed by this language and even more by the back-to-back 
citations of Washington v. Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest 
that the Free Exercise Clause now only guards against intentional 
discrimination.

I'd read this language another way.  I'd read it to say that when a plaintiff 
argues a violation of neutrality ("where the claim is invidious 
discrimination"), he must plead and prove it with the requisite detail ("the 
plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with discriminatory 
purpose").  But a plaintiff can go another route altogether.  He can argue that 
the law is not generally applicable, and thus avoid all inquiries about 
discriminatory purpose.  Under my reading, nothing in Iqbal speaks to the 
general applicability requirement.

I think my reading is the most plausible one.  But it may be that I am being 
unduly influenced by my attraction to a strong substantive conception of Free 
Exercise.  So I'd be interested in what other people think.

P.S.  In my defense, surely the Court did not mean to change the Free Exercise 
Clause standard in a case about pleading standards, right?  Although maybe this 
is meaningful as an inadvertent disclosure about where the Free Exercise Clause 
is going.  (Also note that Justice Alito, who wrote the Newark opinion while on 
the Third Circuit, joined this opinion.)



______________________
Christopher C. Lund
Assistant Professor of Law
Mississippi College School of Law
151 E. Griffith St.
Jackson, MS  39201
(601) 925-7141 (office)
(601) 925-7113 (fax)
Papers: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402
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