I appreciate Marty and Rick's conversation.  As Rick knows, I tend to share his 
broad viewpoint and I've published on this issue before.  Let me suggest that 
there's a kind of disjuncture in the conversation, one that might be roughly 
captured by the difference between thinking locally and doctrinally and 
thinking more structurally and theoretically.  Defenders of the ministerial 
exception (and I include myself among the culprits) doubtless often strike 
others as unsatisfying because they're talking in big-picture terms, in terms 
of "essential postulates" and so on, and thus leave all kinds of quite simple 
doctrinal questions unexamined, or not examined carefully enough.  What 
guidance are they actually offering the courts?  Conversely, I do tend to think 
that some of the more doctrinally oriented opposition to or criticism of the 
ministerial exception does not adequately fit those arguments into any kind of 
broader framework or thinking about religious freedom -- including many bedrock 
statements about religious freedom that can be found in our history and in the 
caselaw.  So there is an element of talking past each other in these 
conversations sometimes.
For my part, I do think there are points of intersection.  I think doctrinal 
criticisms of the ministerial exception raise some good tough questions: how do 
we determine who is a minister, what counts as "religious" work, what (if any) 
is the intersection between retaliation and the ministerial exception, and so 
on.  On the other hand, I don't take it as a given that we can reason our way 
doctrinally and pragmatically as lawyers and judges toward the answers to these 
questions.  Asking, for example, whether teaching specifically religious 
subjects for 45 minutes a day qualifies one as a minister may seem like a 
question that we can just answer with the usual analytical tools, but I'm not 
sure it is; I think that kind of analysis ultimately misses some of the ways in 
which that kind of dry inquiry misses a good deal of what it means to be a 
minister.  The doctrinal tool that usually comes in to address the courts' 
efforts to deal with institutions whose nature and scope is not easily captured 
by judicial analysis is deference; and I take it that many defenders of the 
ministerial exception think that a number of the doctrinal questions that the 
exception's critics find so devastating would be much easier if the courts 
treated many of these threshold questions (including, for instance, the 
question whether retaliation can itself constitute a departure from the 
church's fundamental norms of discipline) as requiring substantial deference on 
the part of the courts toward the views of the religious institution.  I 
understand the arguments against giving churches too much deference in this 
area and I'm not trying to engage with them right now.  I'm just saying that 
how one's big picture views about the role of religious institutions in society 
and the limits of state authority can, through tools like deference, have 
something to say about the resolution of specific cases, including this one.
The same seems to go for some of the doctrinal arguments against (in whole or 
in part) the ministerial exception that I've seen in the briefs and elsewhere.  
Many of them seem to start with the assumption that the state has a general 
regulatory authority, especially within any sector of civil rights or 
employment law; that it would be contrary to this assumption to think of 
churches as having some kind of legal autonomy or sovereignty; that any 
exceptions are or should be very narrowly confined and involve balancing rather 
than some kind of grander jurisdictional limitation; and that when courts, as 
they sometimes do, treat church governance as something apart from state 
authority, they do so only for reasons of judicial incompetence rather than for 
broader reasons, and so any legal resolution of an employment dispute involving 
a church that (ostensibly) does not directly involve a classic case of judicial 
incompetence should be acceptable.  Again, I think some of those conclusions 
miss the broader meaning of the Religion Clauses, and that the subsequent 
doctrinal analysis goes astray when it slips the tethers of the basic meaning 
of the Religion Clauses in this way.  I'm open to disagreement on that part.  
But I feel I can say with confidence that the doctrinal criticisms of the 
ministerial exception begin with some broader big-picture assumptions that 
deserve to be acknowledged, brought out in the open, and questioned.
There may be one more payoff on that last point.  My sense is that some of the 
most prominent critics of the ministerial exception think it is not only not 
constitutionally required, but that it would be either constitutionally 
impermissible or simply terrible policy if legislatures were given authority to 
enact the ministerial exception.  Others may feel only that it is not 
constitutionally required, and may feel either that a statutory ministerial 
exception is an excellent idea or take no position one way or the other.  Smith 
was not the end of the religious exemption discussion, and I don't see why an 
affirmance in Hosanna-Tabor should be the end of the ministerial exception.  I 
would like to hear more from the critics of the ministerial exception about 
whether they think, if it is struck down as a constitutional matter, 
legislatures could enact such an exception, and whether they should.
Best to all,
Paul   

From: rgarn...@nd.edu
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Date: Wed, 17 Aug 2011 10:15:35 -0400
Subject: RE: The Two Forms of "Ministerial Exception" Cases -- a Query



Dear Marty, I’m not sure about how you’ve constructed the “run of the mill” and 
“not one of those sorts of cases” categories – because I think it seems to make 
an awful lot depend simply on what the government has chosen to identify as a 
prohibited ground of decision, and it seems to de-emphasizes the nature of the 
position / relationship at issue – but let’s put that aside.  As I see it, for 
purposes of thinking about what a commitment to religious freedom entails, 
before we get to what you call the “court’s basic function [of] determin[ing] 
whether the prohibited consideration motivated the action”, there is the 
question whether the action in question is part of the selection and 
application by a religious community of its criteria for religious ministers.  
As I read your second paragraph, you are open to the possibility that “perhaps” 
a ministerial exception is warranted – but only perhaps – even in the kinds of 
cases described in that paragraph.  For me, though, it is bedrock – of the “The 
Sedition Act of 1798 was inconsistent with an attractive understanding of the 
Freedom of Speech” variety – that an exception is required in such cases.  But, 
I won’t belabor the claim here, because I know you want to get others’ 
reactions. With respect to your last question, though, about Dale and RFRA.  
Both do, as you suggest, provide some protections for the decisions of 
religious communities, when they act as employers.  Still, they are not (in my 
view) sufficient.  Two quick thoughts:  First, I am not sure I know what Dale 
really stands for, and I’m not confident that everyone who is arguing “Dale is 
enough” believes that Dale was rightly decided.  Let’s assume, as many of us on 
this list probably believe, that Dale is wrong (because, say, it confused 
discriminatory “conduct” with “speech”).  What, then, prevents a state 
government from imposing liability on, say, a (hypothetical) conservative 
Protestant congregation that refuses to hire a woman, because she is a woman, 
as its minister (assuming it can do so without entangling itself in “religious” 
questions)?  After all, we are thinking and talking not just about the Court’s 
doctrines, but about church-state relations and religious freedom more 
generally.  If we were constructing our doctrine, rather than trying to 
untangle and apply it, how would you proceed in this case? Second – again, 
sorry to be a broken record --  I do not believe the question that is presented 
in the core ministerial-exception case (and I think H-T is closer to the core 
than, it sounds like, you do) should be answered by asking a civil court to 
decide whether the state has announced a sufficiently “compelling” interest to 
justify the police-power exercise / expansion that, it seems to me, such a case 
involves.   I have tried to write up this sense / view / intuition of mine in a 
few places, including this (very) short essay, “Are Churches (Just) Like the 
Boy Scouts?”:       http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=1017590 
Anyway, thanks for the conversation.  Best, R Richard W. GarnettProfessor of 
Law and Associate DeanNotre Dame Law SchoolP.O. Box 780Notre Dame, Indiana 
46556-0780 574-631-6981 (w)574-276-2252 (cell) SSRN page Blogs: 
PrawfsblawgMirror of JusticeLaw, Religion, and Ethics From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] 
On Behalf Of Marty Lederman
Sent: Wednesday, August 17, 2011 8:54 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: The Two Forms of "Ministerial Exception" Cases -- a Query 
Hosanna-Tabor is not a run-of-the-mill "ministerial exception" case; and 
because of that, it raises a question that I was hoping others on the list 
could address.   The much more common type of ME case, with which we're all 
familiar, involves a dispute about whether the church or organization in 
question violated a statutory antidiscrimination norm.  For example, (i) the 
church purports to comply with the prohibition against discrimination on the 
basis of sex or disability; (ii) the church claims that its employment decision 
was not based on the proscribed consideration but was instead based on 
permissible, often religiously-evaluated, considerations; and (iii) the 
plaintiff asserts that no, in fact the asserted neutral reasons are pretextual, 
and that the church actually acted on the basis of the prohibited 
consideration, such as sex or disability.  In such cases, the court's basic 
function is to determine whether the prohibited consideration motivated the 
action -- a question that might (or might not) entangle the court in 
evaluations of religious doctrine or assessment of religious cosniderations. 
Such cases can raise difficult questions:  Perhaps they call for some form of 
ministerial exception; perhaps not.  At the very least, some such cases likely 
require the court to accept the defendant's view of certain religious 
assessments:  As the SG puts it, in such cases "the district court could limit 
the pretext inquiry to cordon off challenges to the religious organization's 
religious assessment."  (Pages 38-41 of the SG brief have a nice discussion of 
such issues.) But Hosanna-Tabor is not one of those sorts of cases.  It is, 
instead, the more unusual case where the defendant acknowledges that it acted 
in violation of the antidiscrimination norm -- the school fired Perich for 
threatening to file an ADA claim, something the retaliation provision of the 
ADA itself plainly forbids -- and asserts that it should be able to do so for 
religious reasons, namely, because it asserts the existence of a religious 
tenet that called teachers must resolve such ADA claims internally, rather than 
involving civil authorities.  (I have some questions about whether the Synod's 
rules truly require ADA claims to be resolved internally, but that's for 
another post -- I assume, as do the respondents, that the court here would 
accept that representation of religious doctrine as accurate.) This sort of 
case is also familiar to us, because it has the structure of a claim for 
exemption from a generally applicable rule where that rule conflicts with 
religious tenets.  Such claims were once raised under Sherbert/Yoder and are 
now raised regularly under RFRA.  Hosanna-Tabor could have asserted a RFRA 
defense to the EEOC's claim.  If it had, and if it demonstrated that the ADA 
retaliation provision imposed a substantial burden on its religious exercise in 
this case, then it would be entitled to an exemption as a matter of statutory 
right unless the government could show that denial of such an exemption were 
the least restrictive means of furthering a compelling governmental interest.  
Similarly, under Boy Scouts v. Dale, the school would be entitled to an 
exemption as a matter of First Amendment law if it could show that application 
of the ADA rule here would affect in a significant way its ability to advocate 
its viewpoint, and if that interest were not overridden by a compelling 
governmental interest. So here's my question:  If the school cannot (or chooses 
not to) demonstrate that the ADA would substantially burden its exercise of 
religion as applied to the Perich case, or that it would significantly affect 
its ability to advocate its viewpoint about internal dispute resolution -- or 
if it made such a showing but a compelling state interest in preserving the ADA 
anti-retaliation rule overrode that impact on religious exercise or expression 
of viewpoint -- why should the school nevertheless be entitled to violate the 
ADA?   That is to say:  Why aren't RFRA and Dale sufficient in such a case such 
as thus to account for all religious liberty and associational expression 
concerns?
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