Ok, I'll bite.   Why is an anti-coercion statute obviously unconstitutional?

Marci


On Jan 24, 2012, at 4:45 PM, "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu> wrote:

> An Arkansas 1891 statute:  “No person shall coerce, intimidate or unduly 
> influence, any elector to vote for or against the nominee of any political 
> party, or for or against any particular question or candidate, by any threat 
> or warning of personal violence or injury, or by any threat or warning of 
> ejectment from rented or leased premises, or by the foreclosure of any 
> mortgage or deed of trust, or of any action at law or equity, or of discharge 
> from employment, or of expulsion from membership in any church, lodge, secret 
> order or benevolent society, or by any oath, or affirmation or secret written 
> pledge.”  I assume such a statute, as applied to churches, would be 
> unconstitutional today, and might even have generally been seen as 
> unconstitutional back then, though I have seen no cases interpreting it.
>  
> Interestingly, a North Carolina statute that didn’t mention churches -- “Any 
> person who shall discharge from employment, withdraw patronage from, or 
> otherwise injure, threaten, oppress or attempt to intimidate any qualified 
> voter of the state, because of the vote such voter may or may not have cast 
> in any election, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor” -- was held in 1901 to not 
> be able applicable to expulsion from churches based on a person’s vote.  See 
> State v. Rogers, 38 S.E. 34 (N.C. 1901), 
> http://volokh.com/2012/01/23/interesting-old-prosecution-for-expelling-someone-from-a-church-based-on-how-he-voted/
>  .
>  
> Eugene
>  
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