Most laws aren't based on provable "scientific fact," and the 
rational basis test generally doesn't require scientific proof.  That's 
especially so in areas that can't be easily subjected to scientific experiment, 
and in which indirect consequences might not be felt for generations.  One 
might conclude that a law is unwise or unfair, based on one's own educated 
guesses about what the likely costs and benefits will be, without concluding 
that it is irrational.

Indeed, I myself have been persuaded to the view that the opposite-sex-only 
marriage rules are unwise, though I don't think they are irrational either in 
the constitutional sense or in the lay sense of having no plausible rational 
justification.  One such rational justification is that one ought not modify - 
or modify further - rules for an institution that is very old and foundational 
in society, as well as important to our legal system, until one sees more than 
a few years' experience with such an institution.  Again, one might disagree 
with this justification (I do, on balance), but I find it hard to see how it's 
irrational.

Another justification is the view that opposite-sex relationships are better 
for society (for instance, because they produce more children, or because they 
provide children with both male and female parents) than same-sex 
relationships, and that the fact that many non-entirely-heterosexual people are 
bisexual rather than purely homosexual- especially among women - suggests that 
there are at least some people who could be influenced to choose heterosexual 
relationships over homosexual relationships.  (See Laumann et al. (1994), 
reported in relevant part at http://www.volokh.com/posts/1184344872.shtml, for 
data on the relative number of bisexuals vs. pure homosexuals.)  One might 
disagree that we want more children, or that in the long term opposite-sex 
relationships will produce more children (given reproductive technology), or 
that having a male and female parent is indeed markedly beneficial for 
children, or that any significant number of bisexuals will indeed be swayed 
towards heterosexuality by the marriage rules; or one may conclude (again, as 
do I) that the benefits of same-sex marriage (e.g., reduction in sexually 
transmitted diseases, more stability for the many children who will in any 
event be raised by same-sex couples, etc.) outweigh the possible costs.  But 
again I don't see how the justification I outline above is irrational, as 
opposed to not sufficient to carry the day.

Finally, one can of course conclude that as a matter of moral obligation, 
same-sex relationships should be treated equally with opposite-sex 
relationships even if there are social costs to this - or that there should be 
a presumption of equal treatment that can only be rebutted if we are really 
quite confident that the equal treatment would generate social costs.  But 
that's not an argument about scientific fact or rationality.

Eugene


From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Jean Dudley
Sent: Monday, July 01, 2013 9:00 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Marriage -- the Alito dissent

Would you kindly provide one argument that isn't irrational?  Understand that 
it will indeed be scrutinized for basis in scientific fact, and that it if 
fails, it will have to be deemed irrational.
On Jul 1, 2013, at Mon, Jul 1,  6:35 PM, "Esenberg, Richard" 
<richard.esenb...@marquette.edu<mailto:richard.esenb...@marquette.edu>> wrote:


 My intended point is that the notion that opposition to same sex marriage - 
even if based on traditional arguments about the morality of homosexual 
relationships - cannot be dismissed as irrational or hateful.

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