On Thursday, November 5, 2015 at 5:11:42 PM UTC-8, Rob Beezer wrote:
>
> LIke I said, my complex analysis is rusty.  And I am really asking for 
> somebody else.  Is the chunk of code that produces 2 (above) not following 
> the definition of the residue?
>

No it's not. If t=1/z then you don't get a truncated taylor expansion 
around t=0 by substituting t=1/z in the taylor expansion around z=0.

In general, if you define the residue by a contour integral, then the 
residue of exp(1/z) around z=0 is 0: Any contour around z=0 is a boundary 
of a simply connected domain of the Riemann sphere on which the function is 
regular, so integrating along the contour gets you 0.

exp(1/z) has an essential singularity at z=0, so there is no laurent 
expansion to read off the residue from.

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